TEAS 7 Comprehensive Academic Skills Exam Prep
Document | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
TEAS 7 Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions |
Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive study guide contains 250 verified questions and answers for the TEAS 7 exam,
covering all four core academic sections: Reading, Mathematics, Science, and English and Language
Usage. Designed for prospective nursing and allied health students, this resource reflects the official
2026/2027 test blueprint and includes detailed rationales for each answer. Master the skills needed to
achieve a competitive score and advance your healthcare career.
Abstract:
The TEAS 7 Comprehensive Academic Skills Exam is a critical assessment for students seeking admission to
nursing and allied health programs. This document provides 250 verified questions that mirror the format,
difficulty, and content distribution of the official exam. Each question is accompanied by a detailed rationale
explaining the correct answer and common distractors, enabling targeted study and self-assessment. The material
is organized by content area-Reading, Mathematics, Science, and English and Language Usage-with weightings
that reflect the actual exam. Updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource incorporates the latest test
specifications and emphasizes higher-order thinking skills. By mastering these questions, students can build
confidence and improve their performance on test day. This guide is an essential tool for any prospective
healthcare student aiming for a top score.
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Reading 1-53 Key ideas and details, craft and structure, 31%
integration of knowledge and ideas
Mathematics 54-90 Numbers and algebra, measurement and data 20%
Science 91-150 Human anatomy and physiology, biology, 34%
chemistry, scientific reasoning
English and Language Usage 151-250 Conventions of standard English, knowledge 15%
of language, vocabulary acquisition
Page 1
,Q1. Which of the following best explains the role of the sodium-potassium pump in maintaining the
resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A. It transports three sodium ions out and two potassium ions in, using ATP, creating a net negative
charge inside.
B. It transports two sodium ions out and three potassium ions in, using ATP, creating a net positive
charge inside.
C. It facilitates passive diffusion of sodium and potassium down their concentration gradients.
D. It exchanges sodium and potassium in a 1:1 ratio, maintaining electrical neutrality.
Correct Answer: A. It transports three sodium ions out and two potassium ions in, using ATP,
creating a net negative charge inside.
Rationale: The sodium-potassium pump actively transports 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in per ATP, creating a
net loss of positive charge inside the cell, contributing to the negative resting membrane potential. Option
B reverses the numbers, option C describes passive channels, and option D is incorrect because the ratio
is not 1:1.
Why Wrong:
B - The pump moves 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in, not the reverse.
C - The pump is active transport, not passive diffusion.
D - The pump does not exchange ions in a 1:1 ratio; it moves more positive charges out than in.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 4; Guyton & Hall (2021).
Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th Ed., Ch. 5.
Q2. In a clinical trial, a new drug reduces systolic blood pressure by a mean of 12 mmHg with a
standard deviation of 4 mmHg. Assuming a normal distribution, what percentage of patients would
be expected to have a reduction greater than 16 mmHg?
A. Approximately 16%
B. Approximately 2.5%
C. Approximately 5%
D. Approximately 32%
Correct Answer: A. Approximately 16%
Rationale: A reduction of 16 mmHg is one standard deviation above the mean (z = 1). In a normal
distribution, about 68% of values lie within ±1 SD, so 32% lie outside; half of those (16%) are above +1
SD.
Why Wrong:
B - This would correspond to 2 SD above the mean, not 1.
C - This is the approximate percentage for values beyond 2 SD in a two-tailed test, not one-tailed.
D - This is the total percentage outside ±1 SD, not just above +1 SD.
Reference: Triola, M.F. (2023). Elementary Statistics, 14th Ed., Ch. 6.
Page 2
,Q3. Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of DNA polymerase III in
prokaryotic DNA replication?
A. It synthesizes RNA primers on the lagging strand.
B. It adds nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand, requiring a free 3'-OH group.
C. It seals nicks between Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
D. It unwinds the DNA double helix ahead of the replication fork.
Correct Answer: B. It adds nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand, requiring a free
3'-OH group.
Rationale: DNA polymerase III adds deoxyribonucleotides to the 3'-OH end of a primer, extending the
new strand. Primase (not Pol III) synthesizes RNA primers; ligase seals nicks; helicase unwinds DNA.
Why Wrong:
A - RNA primers are synthesized by primase, not DNA polymerase III.
C - Sealing nicks is the function of DNA ligase.
D - Unwinding the DNA helix is performed by helicase.
Reference: Alberts, B. et al. (2022). Molecular Biology of the Cell, 7th Ed., Ch. 5.
Q4. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum creatinine of 3.5 mg/dL and a blood urea
nitrogen (BUN) of 70 mg/dL. Which of the following best explains the disproportionately elevated
BUN?
A. Increased protein catabolism due to acidosis
B. Decreased renal perfusion from dehydration
C. Enhanced tubular secretion of urea
D. Reduced hepatic urea synthesis
Correct Answer: A. Increased protein catabolism due to acidosis
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, metabolic acidosis often increases protein catabolism, raising urea
production and BUN disproportionately to creatinine. Dehydration can elevate both but typically not
disproportionately unless prerenal; tubular secretion of urea is minimal; hepatic synthesis is not reduced.
Why Wrong:
B - Dehydration elevates BUN and creatinine proportionally, not disproportionately.
C - Urea is not significantly secreted; it is filtered and reabsorbed.
D - Hepatic urea synthesis is typically maintained or increased in CKD.
Reference: Brenner & Rector (2024). The Kidney, 11th Ed., Ch. 25.
Page 3
, Q5. Which of the following is the primary reason that the second ionization energy of an element is
always greater than the first?
A. The electron removed is from a lower energy level with stronger nuclear attraction.
B. The atom has a larger radius after losing one electron.
C. The remaining electrons experience less electron-electron repulsion.
D. The nuclear charge decreases after the first ionization.
Correct Answer: A. The electron removed is from a lower energy level with stronger nuclear
attraction.
Rationale: After the first electron is removed, the remaining electrons are held more tightly because the
effective nuclear charge increases (same Z, fewer electrons). The second electron is typically from a lower
energy orbital, closer to the nucleus, requiring more energy.
Why Wrong:
B - The atomic radius decreases after losing an electron, not increases.
C - Less repulsion would lower ionization energy, not increase it.
D - Nuclear charge remains constant; it does not decrease.
Reference: Brown, T.L. et al. (2023). Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Ed., Ch. 7.
Q6. A researcher is studying a gene that is transcribed at a constant rate, but the mRNA half-life is
2 hours. If a transcription inhibitor is added, how long will it take for the mRNA level to drop to
25% of its original steady-state level?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours
Correct Answer: B. 4 hours
Rationale: With a half-life of 2 hours, the mRNA decays exponentially. After 2 hours, 50% remains; after
4 hours, 25% remains. This is a first-order decay process.
Why Wrong:
A - After 2 hours, 50% remains, not 25%.
C - 6 hours would give 12.5% remaining.
D - 8 hours would give 6.25% remaining.
Reference: Lodish, H. et al. (2021). Molecular Cell Biology, 9th Ed., Ch. 8.
Page 4
Document | 2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
TEAS 7 Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified Solutions |
Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive study guide contains 250 verified questions and answers for the TEAS 7 exam,
covering all four core academic sections: Reading, Mathematics, Science, and English and Language
Usage. Designed for prospective nursing and allied health students, this resource reflects the official
2026/2027 test blueprint and includes detailed rationales for each answer. Master the skills needed to
achieve a competitive score and advance your healthcare career.
Abstract:
The TEAS 7 Comprehensive Academic Skills Exam is a critical assessment for students seeking admission to
nursing and allied health programs. This document provides 250 verified questions that mirror the format,
difficulty, and content distribution of the official exam. Each question is accompanied by a detailed rationale
explaining the correct answer and common distractors, enabling targeted study and self-assessment. The material
is organized by content area-Reading, Mathematics, Science, and English and Language Usage-with weightings
that reflect the actual exam. Updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource incorporates the latest test
specifications and emphasizes higher-order thinking skills. By mastering these questions, students can build
confidence and improve their performance on test day. This guide is an essential tool for any prospective
healthcare student aiming for a top score.
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Reading 1-53 Key ideas and details, craft and structure, 31%
integration of knowledge and ideas
Mathematics 54-90 Numbers and algebra, measurement and data 20%
Science 91-150 Human anatomy and physiology, biology, 34%
chemistry, scientific reasoning
English and Language Usage 151-250 Conventions of standard English, knowledge 15%
of language, vocabulary acquisition
Page 1
,Q1. Which of the following best explains the role of the sodium-potassium pump in maintaining the
resting membrane potential of a neuron?
A. It transports three sodium ions out and two potassium ions in, using ATP, creating a net negative
charge inside.
B. It transports two sodium ions out and three potassium ions in, using ATP, creating a net positive
charge inside.
C. It facilitates passive diffusion of sodium and potassium down their concentration gradients.
D. It exchanges sodium and potassium in a 1:1 ratio, maintaining electrical neutrality.
Correct Answer: A. It transports three sodium ions out and two potassium ions in, using ATP,
creating a net negative charge inside.
Rationale: The sodium-potassium pump actively transports 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in per ATP, creating a
net loss of positive charge inside the cell, contributing to the negative resting membrane potential. Option
B reverses the numbers, option C describes passive channels, and option D is incorrect because the ratio
is not 1:1.
Why Wrong:
B - The pump moves 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in, not the reverse.
C - The pump is active transport, not passive diffusion.
D - The pump does not exchange ions in a 1:1 ratio; it moves more positive charges out than in.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 4; Guyton & Hall (2021).
Textbook of Medical Physiology, 14th Ed., Ch. 5.
Q2. In a clinical trial, a new drug reduces systolic blood pressure by a mean of 12 mmHg with a
standard deviation of 4 mmHg. Assuming a normal distribution, what percentage of patients would
be expected to have a reduction greater than 16 mmHg?
A. Approximately 16%
B. Approximately 2.5%
C. Approximately 5%
D. Approximately 32%
Correct Answer: A. Approximately 16%
Rationale: A reduction of 16 mmHg is one standard deviation above the mean (z = 1). In a normal
distribution, about 68% of values lie within ±1 SD, so 32% lie outside; half of those (16%) are above +1
SD.
Why Wrong:
B - This would correspond to 2 SD above the mean, not 1.
C - This is the approximate percentage for values beyond 2 SD in a two-tailed test, not one-tailed.
D - This is the total percentage outside ±1 SD, not just above +1 SD.
Reference: Triola, M.F. (2023). Elementary Statistics, 14th Ed., Ch. 6.
Page 2
,Q3. Which of the following statements accurately describes the role of DNA polymerase III in
prokaryotic DNA replication?
A. It synthesizes RNA primers on the lagging strand.
B. It adds nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand, requiring a free 3'-OH group.
C. It seals nicks between Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
D. It unwinds the DNA double helix ahead of the replication fork.
Correct Answer: B. It adds nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand, requiring a free
3'-OH group.
Rationale: DNA polymerase III adds deoxyribonucleotides to the 3'-OH end of a primer, extending the
new strand. Primase (not Pol III) synthesizes RNA primers; ligase seals nicks; helicase unwinds DNA.
Why Wrong:
A - RNA primers are synthesized by primase, not DNA polymerase III.
C - Sealing nicks is the function of DNA ligase.
D - Unwinding the DNA helix is performed by helicase.
Reference: Alberts, B. et al. (2022). Molecular Biology of the Cell, 7th Ed., Ch. 5.
Q4. A patient with chronic kidney disease has a serum creatinine of 3.5 mg/dL and a blood urea
nitrogen (BUN) of 70 mg/dL. Which of the following best explains the disproportionately elevated
BUN?
A. Increased protein catabolism due to acidosis
B. Decreased renal perfusion from dehydration
C. Enhanced tubular secretion of urea
D. Reduced hepatic urea synthesis
Correct Answer: A. Increased protein catabolism due to acidosis
Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, metabolic acidosis often increases protein catabolism, raising urea
production and BUN disproportionately to creatinine. Dehydration can elevate both but typically not
disproportionately unless prerenal; tubular secretion of urea is minimal; hepatic synthesis is not reduced.
Why Wrong:
B - Dehydration elevates BUN and creatinine proportionally, not disproportionately.
C - Urea is not significantly secreted; it is filtered and reabsorbed.
D - Hepatic urea synthesis is typically maintained or increased in CKD.
Reference: Brenner & Rector (2024). The Kidney, 11th Ed., Ch. 25.
Page 3
, Q5. Which of the following is the primary reason that the second ionization energy of an element is
always greater than the first?
A. The electron removed is from a lower energy level with stronger nuclear attraction.
B. The atom has a larger radius after losing one electron.
C. The remaining electrons experience less electron-electron repulsion.
D. The nuclear charge decreases after the first ionization.
Correct Answer: A. The electron removed is from a lower energy level with stronger nuclear
attraction.
Rationale: After the first electron is removed, the remaining electrons are held more tightly because the
effective nuclear charge increases (same Z, fewer electrons). The second electron is typically from a lower
energy orbital, closer to the nucleus, requiring more energy.
Why Wrong:
B - The atomic radius decreases after losing an electron, not increases.
C - Less repulsion would lower ionization energy, not increase it.
D - Nuclear charge remains constant; it does not decrease.
Reference: Brown, T.L. et al. (2023). Chemistry: The Central Science, 15th Ed., Ch. 7.
Q6. A researcher is studying a gene that is transcribed at a constant rate, but the mRNA half-life is
2 hours. If a transcription inhibitor is added, how long will it take for the mRNA level to drop to
25% of its original steady-state level?
A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 6 hours
D. 8 hours
Correct Answer: B. 4 hours
Rationale: With a half-life of 2 hours, the mRNA decays exponentially. After 2 hours, 50% remains; after
4 hours, 25% remains. This is a first-order decay process.
Why Wrong:
A - After 2 hours, 50% remains, not 25%.
C - 6 hours would give 12.5% remaining.
D - 8 hours would give 6.25% remaining.
Reference: Lodish, H. et al. (2021). Molecular Cell Biology, 9th Ed., Ch. 8.
Page 4
