BIO 1150 HUMAN ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY I – LAB |
GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING (PDF) | 2026 EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS + RATIONALES | STUDY GUIDE |
100% CORRECT
1. According to the galen college of nursing course syllabus, what is the primary focus of bio 1150,
human anatomy & physiology i – laboratory?
A) to provide a theoretical overview of human physiology without practical application.
B) to offer a laboratory study of the specific structure and function of the human body, beginning
with the cell and stressing chemical processes important in homeostasis.
C) to focus exclusively on the study of the nervous system and its functions.
D) to serve as a replacement for the theory course, bio 1100.
Correct answer: b) to offer a laboratory study of the specific structure and function of the human
body, beginning with the cell and stressing chemical processes important in homeostasis.
Rationale: the course catalog description states that bio 1150 includes the laboratory study of the
specific structure and function of the human body beginning with the cell and stressing the
chemical processes important in the maintenance of homeostasis . It is designed to accompany
the theory course, not replace it.
2. What is the co-requisite for bio 1150 at galen college of nursing?
A) bio 1200
b) bio 2100
c) bio 1100
d) nur 170
Correct answer: c) bio 1100
Rationale: the bio 1150 syllabus explicitly lists bio 1100 as the co-requisite for the laboratory
course . This means both the theory and the laboratory course must be taken concurrently.
3. According to the syllabus blueprint for bio 1150, how many questions are on exam 1?
A) 25 questions
b) 50 questions
c) 75 questions
d) 100 questions
Correct answer: b) 50 questions
Rationale: the exam blueprint provided in the syllabus shows that each of the four exams for bio
1150 consists of 50 questions . This applies to exam 1, 2, 3, and the final exam.
4. Which units are covered on bio 1150 exam 1, according to the syllabus blueprint?
A) units 7 and 8 (joints and muscular system)
, b) units 9, 10, and 11 (nervous system and general & special senses)
c) units 5 and 6 (integumentary and skeletal system)
d) units 1, 2, 3, and 4 (introduction to anatomical terms, chemistry & ph, cytology, and
histology)
Correct answer: d) units 1, 2, 3, and 4 (introduction to anatomical terms, chemistry & ph,
cytology, and histology)
Rationale: the blueprint for exam 1 indicates that it covers "introduction to anatomical terms,"
"chemistry & ph," "cytology," and "histology" . Each exam focuses on specific laboratory units.
5. The process by which a red blood cell placed in a hypotonic solution will swell and likely burst
is an example of:
a) facilitated diffusion.
B) active transport.
C) osmosis.
D) phagocytosis.
Correct answer: c) osmosis.
Rationale: osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of
low solute concentration to high solute concentration. A hypotonic solution has a lower solute
concentration than the cell's interior, causing water to rush into the cell, leading to swelling and
potential lysis .
6. Which of the following terms means the physical expression of a gene?
A) genotype
b) phenotype
c) allele
d) dominant trait
Correct answer: b) phenotype
Rationale: the phenotype is the observable physical or biochemical expression of a gene, such as
eye color or disease state, as opposed to the genotype, which is the actual genetic makeup .
7. What is the primary role of mitochondria in the cell?
A) to synthesize proteins.
B) to package and modify proteins for secretion.
C) to convert molecules into usable energy (atp).
D) to store genetic information.
Correct answer: c) to convert molecules into usable energy (atp).
Rationale: mitochondria are known as the "powerhouse" of the cell, as they are responsible for
generating most of the cell's atp through cellular respiration . They have a double membrane
system and their own dna.
, 8. A 42-year-old female patient with jaundice and elevated liver enzymes has bluish-dark rings
encircling the iris (kayser-fleischer rings) and an elevated ceruloplasmin level. What is the likely
diagnosis?
A) g6pd deficiency
b) wilson disease
c) prader-willi syndrome
d) huntington's disease
Correct answer: b) wilson disease
Rationale: this presentation is classic for wilson disease, a rare genetic disorder of copper
metabolism. Kayser-fleischer rings and elevated ceruloplasmin are key diagnostic features .
9. A patient with a positive htt gene will most likely develop which condition?
A) down syndrome
b) huntington's chorea
c) fragile-x syndrome
d) ehlers-danlos syndrome
Correct answer: b) huntington's chorea
Rationale: the htt gene is associated with huntington's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder. A
positive htt gene test indicates that the patient will develop the condition .
10. According to an exam study guide, which experimental method is considered the best for
prenatal screening?
A) maternal serum screening
b) amniocentesis
c) chorionic villus sampling
d) percutaneous umbilical cord sampling
Correct answer: d) percutaneous umbilical cord sampling
Rationale: among the listed options, percutaneous umbilical cord sampling (pubs) is identified as
the best method for prenatal screening due to its diagnostic accuracy . It allows for direct
analysis of the fetal blood.
11. Which of the following is a correct statement about the hershey-chase experiment?
A) dna was labeled with radioactive sulfur to track its location.
B) proteins were labeled with radioactive phosphorus to track their location.
C) proteins were labeled with radioactive sulfur because dna does not contain sulfur.
D) both dna and proteins were labeled with the same radioactive isotope.
Correct answer: c) proteins were labeled with radioactive sulfur because dna does not contain
sulfur.
GALEN COLLEGE OF NURSING (PDF) | 2026 EXAM
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS + RATIONALES | STUDY GUIDE |
100% CORRECT
1. According to the galen college of nursing course syllabus, what is the primary focus of bio 1150,
human anatomy & physiology i – laboratory?
A) to provide a theoretical overview of human physiology without practical application.
B) to offer a laboratory study of the specific structure and function of the human body, beginning
with the cell and stressing chemical processes important in homeostasis.
C) to focus exclusively on the study of the nervous system and its functions.
D) to serve as a replacement for the theory course, bio 1100.
Correct answer: b) to offer a laboratory study of the specific structure and function of the human
body, beginning with the cell and stressing chemical processes important in homeostasis.
Rationale: the course catalog description states that bio 1150 includes the laboratory study of the
specific structure and function of the human body beginning with the cell and stressing the
chemical processes important in the maintenance of homeostasis . It is designed to accompany
the theory course, not replace it.
2. What is the co-requisite for bio 1150 at galen college of nursing?
A) bio 1200
b) bio 2100
c) bio 1100
d) nur 170
Correct answer: c) bio 1100
Rationale: the bio 1150 syllabus explicitly lists bio 1100 as the co-requisite for the laboratory
course . This means both the theory and the laboratory course must be taken concurrently.
3. According to the syllabus blueprint for bio 1150, how many questions are on exam 1?
A) 25 questions
b) 50 questions
c) 75 questions
d) 100 questions
Correct answer: b) 50 questions
Rationale: the exam blueprint provided in the syllabus shows that each of the four exams for bio
1150 consists of 50 questions . This applies to exam 1, 2, 3, and the final exam.
4. Which units are covered on bio 1150 exam 1, according to the syllabus blueprint?
A) units 7 and 8 (joints and muscular system)
, b) units 9, 10, and 11 (nervous system and general & special senses)
c) units 5 and 6 (integumentary and skeletal system)
d) units 1, 2, 3, and 4 (introduction to anatomical terms, chemistry & ph, cytology, and
histology)
Correct answer: d) units 1, 2, 3, and 4 (introduction to anatomical terms, chemistry & ph,
cytology, and histology)
Rationale: the blueprint for exam 1 indicates that it covers "introduction to anatomical terms,"
"chemistry & ph," "cytology," and "histology" . Each exam focuses on specific laboratory units.
5. The process by which a red blood cell placed in a hypotonic solution will swell and likely burst
is an example of:
a) facilitated diffusion.
B) active transport.
C) osmosis.
D) phagocytosis.
Correct answer: c) osmosis.
Rationale: osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of
low solute concentration to high solute concentration. A hypotonic solution has a lower solute
concentration than the cell's interior, causing water to rush into the cell, leading to swelling and
potential lysis .
6. Which of the following terms means the physical expression of a gene?
A) genotype
b) phenotype
c) allele
d) dominant trait
Correct answer: b) phenotype
Rationale: the phenotype is the observable physical or biochemical expression of a gene, such as
eye color or disease state, as opposed to the genotype, which is the actual genetic makeup .
7. What is the primary role of mitochondria in the cell?
A) to synthesize proteins.
B) to package and modify proteins for secretion.
C) to convert molecules into usable energy (atp).
D) to store genetic information.
Correct answer: c) to convert molecules into usable energy (atp).
Rationale: mitochondria are known as the "powerhouse" of the cell, as they are responsible for
generating most of the cell's atp through cellular respiration . They have a double membrane
system and their own dna.
, 8. A 42-year-old female patient with jaundice and elevated liver enzymes has bluish-dark rings
encircling the iris (kayser-fleischer rings) and an elevated ceruloplasmin level. What is the likely
diagnosis?
A) g6pd deficiency
b) wilson disease
c) prader-willi syndrome
d) huntington's disease
Correct answer: b) wilson disease
Rationale: this presentation is classic for wilson disease, a rare genetic disorder of copper
metabolism. Kayser-fleischer rings and elevated ceruloplasmin are key diagnostic features .
9. A patient with a positive htt gene will most likely develop which condition?
A) down syndrome
b) huntington's chorea
c) fragile-x syndrome
d) ehlers-danlos syndrome
Correct answer: b) huntington's chorea
Rationale: the htt gene is associated with huntington's disease, a neurodegenerative disorder. A
positive htt gene test indicates that the patient will develop the condition .
10. According to an exam study guide, which experimental method is considered the best for
prenatal screening?
A) maternal serum screening
b) amniocentesis
c) chorionic villus sampling
d) percutaneous umbilical cord sampling
Correct answer: d) percutaneous umbilical cord sampling
Rationale: among the listed options, percutaneous umbilical cord sampling (pubs) is identified as
the best method for prenatal screening due to its diagnostic accuracy . It allows for direct
analysis of the fetal blood.
11. Which of the following is a correct statement about the hershey-chase experiment?
A) dna was labeled with radioactive sulfur to track its location.
B) proteins were labeled with radioactive phosphorus to track their location.
C) proteins were labeled with radioactive sulfur because dna does not contain sulfur.
D) both dna and proteins were labeled with the same radioactive isotope.
Correct answer: c) proteins were labeled with radioactive sulfur because dna does not contain
sulfur.
