NR 507 CEA FULL PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS 2026-2027 | COMPREHENSIVE CERTIFICATION … EXAM
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
NR 507 CEA Full Practice Exam
Questions & Answers 2026-2027 |
Comprehensive Certification Study
Guide | Verified Practice Test
(Rationales)
Verified Answers Exam Ready With Rationales
324 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This document contains 324 verified questions with correct answers and detailed rationales, providing a
comprehensive resource for advanced nursing practice. It covers critical aspects of clinical assessment and
diagnosis, making it suitable for certification preparation and in-depth study. Students can leverage this
guide for effective review and mastery of essential concepts needed in their nursing practice.
CONTENTS
01 • Cardiac Conditions 02 • Diabetes Management 03 • Respiratory Disorders
04 • Gastrointestinal Issues 05 • Neurological Disorders 06 • Infectious Diseases
07 • Mental Health 08 • Endocrine Disorders 09 • Hematological Issues
10 • Pediatric Care 11 • Oncology 12 • Dermatological Conditions
13 • Renal Failure 14 • Gynecological Health 15 • Pulmonary Function
16 • Vascular Health 17 • Emergency Care 18 • Chronic Conditions
19 • Miscellaneous
Page 1
, E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 324
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent
to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the
window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
CORRECT ANSWER
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either
right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
RATIONALE
Consolidation in the left upper lobe lingula obscures the cardiac silhouette on lateral X-ray, indicating a lesion in this region as it aligns with the described
consolidation near the heart's left border. The absence of the lesion in the posterior window confirms the lingula as the likely site of infection.
Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 324
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
CORRECT ANSWER
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 324
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH
(Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to
prescribe him?
CORRECT ANSWER
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 324
Page 2
,A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous
distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
CORRECT ANSWER
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular
venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial
infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both
speak to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Q5 QUESTION 5 OF 324
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal
medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the
left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would you expect to
be a priority in the patient's care?
CORRECT ANSWER
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this
state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most
insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
Q6 QUESTION 6 OF 324
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of cardiac disease?
CORRECT ANSWER
Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of
hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than Caucasians.
Q7 QUESTION 7 OF 324
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled hypertension?
CORRECT ANSWER
Peripheral neuropathy
Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic
and is commonly found in non-hypertensive diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
RATIONALE
Uncontrolled hypertension primarily contributes to vascular damage leading to sequelae such as proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke, whereas
peripheral neuropathy is typically associated with diabetes rather than hypertension alone. Thus, while hypertension can coexist with peripheral neuropathy, it
does not directly cause it.
Page 3
, Q8 QUESTION 8 OF 324
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all the following except?
CORRECT ANSWER
Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent modifiable risk factors and should be the focus of preventive care.
Non-modifiable risk factors such as age, gender, genetic/family history should not be the primary focus of prevention.
Q9 QUESTION 9 OF 324
A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and obesity. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum testosterone and LH
ratio > 2:1. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
CORRECT ANSWER
Oral contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome and the patient should be treated with oral contraceptives to help stabilize their
estrogen and progesterone. Additionally, they may be managed on metformin and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first pharmacological treatment for polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) because they help manage in
several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual cycles, making periods lighter and more regular. This is important because irregular
ovulation can lead to endometrial hyperplasia, which is a buildup of uterine tissue that can increase the risk of uterine cancer.
Androgen excess: OCPs can reduce androgen production and increase sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), which binds androgens. This can help
reduce symptoms like acne, hirsutism (unwanted body and facial hair), and androgenic alopecia (male pattern baldness).
Endometrium protection: OCPs can protect the endometrium by ensuring regular ovulation
Q10 QUESTION 10 OF 324
Which of the following is at highest risk for DMII?
CORRECT ANSWER
An adult woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs
Rationale: Of these options, an adult woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs is the most likely due to their increased BMI
and the large size of the baby. giving birth to a large baby, also known as a large-for-gestational-age (LGA) baby, can increase the risk of developing
type 2 diabetes later in life. Women who give birth to a LGA baby are 10% more likely to develop DMII 10-14 years after pregnancy compared to women
who give birth to babies of average gestational age (AGA). This increased risk is even after adjusting for other risk factors, such as age, obesity, high
blood pressure, and family history of diabetes.
Q11 QUESTION 11 OF 324
A starting dose for a elderly adult patient with a BMI of 20 needing levothryoxine
CORRECT ANSWER
25 mcg
Rationale: The widely considered best practice for treatment of hypothyroidism in the elderly is to "go slow and start low". 25 mcg is the most
appropriate low dose to start with of these options. It is possible that over time the dose will be increased until therapeutic levels are obtained, but the
risk of over-dosing the patient outweighs the desire to quickly achieve this state.
Q12 QUESTION 12 OF 324
Page 4
P R O F E S S I O N A L P R A C T I C E M AT E R I A L S
NR 507 CEA Full Practice Exam
Questions & Answers 2026-2027 |
Comprehensive Certification Study
Guide | Verified Practice Test
(Rationales)
Verified Answers Exam Ready With Rationales
324 QUESTIONS
DOCUMENT OVERVIEW
This document contains 324 verified questions with correct answers and detailed rationales, providing a
comprehensive resource for advanced nursing practice. It covers critical aspects of clinical assessment and
diagnosis, making it suitable for certification preparation and in-depth study. Students can leverage this
guide for effective review and mastery of essential concepts needed in their nursing practice.
CONTENTS
01 • Cardiac Conditions 02 • Diabetes Management 03 • Respiratory Disorders
04 • Gastrointestinal Issues 05 • Neurological Disorders 06 • Infectious Diseases
07 • Mental Health 08 • Endocrine Disorders 09 • Hematological Issues
10 • Pediatric Care 11 • Oncology 12 • Dermatological Conditions
13 • Renal Failure 14 • Gynecological Health 15 • Pulmonary Function
16 • Vascular Health 17 • Emergency Care 18 • Chronic Conditions
19 • Miscellaneous
Page 1
, E XA M Q U EST I O N S
Q1 QUESTION 1 OF 324
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation adjacent
to the left border of the heart approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the
window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
CORRECT ANSWER
Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the lesion is either
right middle lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
RATIONALE
Consolidation in the left upper lobe lingula obscures the cardiac silhouette on lateral X-ray, indicating a lesion in this region as it aligns with the described
consolidation near the heart's left border. The absence of the lesion in the posterior window confirms the lingula as the likely site of infection.
Q2 QUESTION 2 OF 324
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
CORRECT ANSWER
Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
Q3 QUESTION 3 OF 324
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt intake, eating a DASH
(Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to
prescribe him?
CORRECT ANSWER
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as
amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
Q4 QUESTION 4 OF 324
Page 2
,A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular venous
distention and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
CORRECT ANSWER
Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response is congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right ventricular back up with jugular
venous extension and crackles on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up. it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial
infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea, which both
speak to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate response of these available is congestive heart failure.
Q5 QUESTION 5 OF 324
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on optimal
medical therapy has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-eluting stent to the
left anterior descending artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after discharge, which medication strategy would you expect to
be a priority in the patient's care?
CORRECT ANSWER
Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such as an implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is
less than 35% due to the increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this
state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most
insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for this patient as presented.
Q6 QUESTION 6 OF 324
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of cardiac disease?
CORRECT ANSWER
Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians, and American Indians are at at increased risk of cardiac disease due to higher rates of
hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than Caucasians.
Q7 QUESTION 7 OF 324
Which of the following end-organ sequelae is not directly caused by uncontrolled hypertension?
CORRECT ANSWER
Peripheral neuropathy
Ratioanle: Although patients with hypertension frequently have peripheral neuropathy, it is only directly attributed to patients who are also diabetic
and is commonly found in non-hypertensive diabetic patients. Proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke are all caused by uncontrolled
hypertension.
RATIONALE
Uncontrolled hypertension primarily contributes to vascular damage leading to sequelae such as proteinuria, AV nicking, and hemorrhagic stroke, whereas
peripheral neuropathy is typically associated with diabetes rather than hypertension alone. Thus, while hypertension can coexist with peripheral neuropathy, it
does not directly cause it.
Page 3
, Q8 QUESTION 8 OF 324
Preventive cardiac care should focus primarily on addressing all the following except?
CORRECT ANSWER
Genetic predisposition
Rationale: Smoking cessation, exercise, and medication compliance all represent modifiable risk factors and should be the focus of preventive care.
Non-modifiable risk factors such as age, gender, genetic/family history should not be the primary focus of prevention.
Q9 QUESTION 9 OF 324
A 33-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and obesity. Laboratory tests reveal elevated serum testosterone and LH
ratio > 2:1. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
CORRECT ANSWER
Oral contraceptives
Rationale: These are classic symptoms of polycystic ovarian syndrome and the patient should be treated with oral contraceptives to help stabilize their
estrogen and progesterone. Additionally, they may be managed on metformin and/or spironolactone for their PCOS.
Oral contraceptive pills (OCPs) are often the first pharmacological treatment for polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) because they help manage in
several ways:
Menstrual irregularities: OCPs can help regulate menstrual cycles, making periods lighter and more regular. This is important because irregular
ovulation can lead to endometrial hyperplasia, which is a buildup of uterine tissue that can increase the risk of uterine cancer.
Androgen excess: OCPs can reduce androgen production and increase sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG), which binds androgens. This can help
reduce symptoms like acne, hirsutism (unwanted body and facial hair), and androgenic alopecia (male pattern baldness).
Endometrium protection: OCPs can protect the endometrium by ensuring regular ovulation
Q10 QUESTION 10 OF 324
Which of the following is at highest risk for DMII?
CORRECT ANSWER
An adult woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs
Rationale: Of these options, an adult woman with a BMI of 27 who just delivered a baby weighing 9 1/2 lbs is the most likely due to their increased BMI
and the large size of the baby. giving birth to a large baby, also known as a large-for-gestational-age (LGA) baby, can increase the risk of developing
type 2 diabetes later in life. Women who give birth to a LGA baby are 10% more likely to develop DMII 10-14 years after pregnancy compared to women
who give birth to babies of average gestational age (AGA). This increased risk is even after adjusting for other risk factors, such as age, obesity, high
blood pressure, and family history of diabetes.
Q11 QUESTION 11 OF 324
A starting dose for a elderly adult patient with a BMI of 20 needing levothryoxine
CORRECT ANSWER
25 mcg
Rationale: The widely considered best practice for treatment of hypothyroidism in the elderly is to "go slow and start low". 25 mcg is the most
appropriate low dose to start with of these options. It is possible that over time the dose will be increased until therapeutic levels are obtained, but the
risk of over-dosing the patient outweighs the desire to quickly achieve this state.
Q12 QUESTION 12 OF 324
Page 4
