ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR RETAKE 100
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES PLUS
ANSWER KEY 2026-2027 Q&A 100% GUARANTEED
PASS INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a 7-year-old
child. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Tell the child they will not feel any pain during the procedure.
B. Inform the child they will feel a sharp stick during the catheter insertion.
C. Use a mummy restraint to hold the child during the catheter insertion.
D. Require the parents to leave the room during the procedure.
Rationale: The nurse should provide age-appropriate, honest information to the
child about what to expect, such as feeling a sharp stick or discomfort. This helps
build trust and reduces anxiety. Using a mummy restraint is typically for infants;
for a 7-year-old, age-appropriate distraction and therapeutic communication are
preferred. Parents should generally be allowed to stay to provide comfort unless
they are interfering with the procedure.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. A thrill upon palpation.
B. The absence of a bruit.
C. Distended blood vessels.
D. A swishing sound upon auscultation.
Rationale: The presence of a thrill (palpable vibration) and a bruit (audible
swishing sound) are expected findings in a functioning arteriovenous fistula. The
,absence of a bruit indicates a possible occlusion or malfunction of the fistula and
should be reported to the provider immediately.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable
cardioverter defibrillator. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will soak in the tub rather than shower."
B. "I will wear loose clothing around my ICD."
C. "I will stop using my microwave oven at home."
D. "I can hold my cellphone on the same side of my body as the ICD."
Rationale: The client should wear loose clothing to avoid irritation over the
implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) site. The client should shower rather
than bathe to keep the site dry and should avoid placing cell phones or other
electronic devices directly over the ICD. Microwave ovens are safe to use .
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports feelings
of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should
the nurse make?
A. "Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant."
B. "You should discuss your feelings about being pregnant with your provider."
C. "Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?"
D. "When did you start having these feelings?"
Rationale: Ambivalence is a normal emotional response during the first
trimester of pregnancy. The most therapeutic response is to use an open-ended
question to encourage the client to express her feelings further, allowing for
exploration and validation .
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-training
program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the
nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 mL per day.
B. Increase the amount of refined grains in the client's diet.
C. Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation.
D. Administer a rectal suppository 30 minutes prior to scheduled defecation
,times.
Rationale: A key component of a bowel-training program is to establish a
routine. Administering a rectal suppository 30 minutes before the scheduled
defecation time helps stimulate a bowel movement at a predictable time.
Adequate fluid intake (2-3 L/day) and a diet high in fiber are also
recommended .
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and requests pain
management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Administer ondansetron.
B. Place the client in a warm shower.
C. Apply fundal pressure during contractions.
D. Assist the client to a supine position.
Rationale: Hydrotherapy, such as a warm shower or bath, is a non-
pharmacological comfort measure that can be used during active labor to
promote relaxation and reduce pain. Fundal pressure is contraindicated during
contractions. The client should be positioned on her side to improve placental
perfusion, not supine .
7. A charge nurse is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the
following guidelines should the nurse include?
A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Rationale: The nurse must frequently assess and document the client's condition,
including skin integrity, circulation, and safety, every 15 to 30 minutes when
restraints are in use. Restraints should be removed every 2 hours for range-of-
motion exercises and toileting. They should be attached to the bed frame, not
the side rails, to prevent injury .
8. A nurse is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should
identify which of the following findings as an indication that the treatment is
effective?
, A. Chest x-ray reveals increased density in all fields.
B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.
Rationale: A client with a pulmonary embolism often experiences anxiety due to
hypoxia and respiratory distress. A decrease in anxiety is a subjective indicator
that oxygenation is improving. The other options indicate worsening or
unresolved respiratory status .
9. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting
30 diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the
client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse
take next?
A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
Rationale: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates
severe central nervous system and respiratory depression. Flumazenil is the
specific antidote for benzodiazepine overdose and should be administered to
reverse the life-threatening respiratory depression. Evaluation for suicidal
behavior is important but secondary to stabilizing the airway and breathing .
10. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports cocaine
use 1 hour ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Hypotension.
B. Memory loss.
C. Slurred speech.
D. Elevated temperature.
Rationale: Cocaine is a central nervous system stimulant. Manifestations of
cocaine use include elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypertension, dilated
pupils, and increased energy. Hypotension, memory loss, and slurred speech are
more commonly associated with central nervous system depressants like alcohol
or opioids .
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES PLUS
ANSWER KEY 2026-2027 Q&A 100% GUARANTEED
PASS INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse in a pediatric unit is preparing to insert an IV catheter for a 7-year-old
child. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Tell the child they will not feel any pain during the procedure.
B. Inform the child they will feel a sharp stick during the catheter insertion.
C. Use a mummy restraint to hold the child during the catheter insertion.
D. Require the parents to leave the room during the procedure.
Rationale: The nurse should provide age-appropriate, honest information to the
child about what to expect, such as feeling a sharp stick or discomfort. This helps
build trust and reduces anxiety. Using a mummy restraint is typically for infants;
for a 7-year-old, age-appropriate distraction and therapeutic communication are
preferred. Parents should generally be allowed to stay to provide comfort unless
they are interfering with the procedure.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has an arteriovenous fistula. Which of the
following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. A thrill upon palpation.
B. The absence of a bruit.
C. Distended blood vessels.
D. A swishing sound upon auscultation.
Rationale: The presence of a thrill (palpable vibration) and a bruit (audible
swishing sound) are expected findings in a functioning arteriovenous fistula. The
,absence of a bruit indicates a possible occlusion or malfunction of the fistula and
should be reported to the provider immediately.
3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who has an implantable
cardioverter defibrillator. Which of the following client statements indicates an
understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will soak in the tub rather than shower."
B. "I will wear loose clothing around my ICD."
C. "I will stop using my microwave oven at home."
D. "I can hold my cellphone on the same side of my body as the ICD."
Rationale: The client should wear loose clothing to avoid irritation over the
implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) site. The client should shower rather
than bathe to keep the site dry and should avoid placing cell phones or other
electronic devices directly over the ICD. Microwave ovens are safe to use .
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 14 weeks of gestation and reports feelings
of ambivalence about being pregnant. Which of the following responses should
the nurse make?
A. "Describe your feelings to me about being pregnant."
B. "You should discuss your feelings about being pregnant with your provider."
C. "Have you discussed these feelings with your partner?"
D. "When did you start having these feelings?"
Rationale: Ambivalence is a normal emotional response during the first
trimester of pregnancy. The most therapeutic response is to use an open-ended
question to encourage the client to express her feelings further, allowing for
exploration and validation .
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-training
program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the
nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 mL per day.
B. Increase the amount of refined grains in the client's diet.
C. Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation.
D. Administer a rectal suppository 30 minutes prior to scheduled defecation
,times.
Rationale: A key component of a bowel-training program is to establish a
routine. Administering a rectal suppository 30 minutes before the scheduled
defecation time helps stimulate a bowel movement at a predictable time.
Adequate fluid intake (2-3 L/day) and a diet high in fiber are also
recommended .
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and requests pain
management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Administer ondansetron.
B. Place the client in a warm shower.
C. Apply fundal pressure during contractions.
D. Assist the client to a supine position.
Rationale: Hydrotherapy, such as a warm shower or bath, is a non-
pharmacological comfort measure that can be used during active labor to
promote relaxation and reduce pain. Fundal pressure is contraindicated during
contractions. The client should be positioned on her side to improve placental
perfusion, not supine .
7. A charge nurse is updating protocols for the use of belt restraints. Which of the
following guidelines should the nurse include?
A. Remove the client's restraint every 4 hours.
B. Document the client's condition every 15 minutes.
C. Attach the restraint to the bed's side rails.
D. Request a PRN restraint prescription for clients who are aggressive.
Rationale: The nurse must frequently assess and document the client's condition,
including skin integrity, circulation, and safety, every 15 to 30 minutes when
restraints are in use. Restraints should be removed every 2 hours for range-of-
motion exercises and toileting. They should be attached to the bed frame, not
the side rails, to prevent injury .
8. A nurse is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. The nurse should
identify which of the following findings as an indication that the treatment is
effective?
, A. Chest x-ray reveals increased density in all fields.
B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.
Rationale: A client with a pulmonary embolism often experiences anxiety due to
hypoxia and respiratory distress. A decrease in anxiety is a subjective indicator
that oxygenation is improving. The other options indicate worsening or
unresolved respiratory status .
9. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting
30 diazepam tablets and has a respiratory rate of 10/min. After securing the
client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse
take next?
A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.
Rationale: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates
severe central nervous system and respiratory depression. Flumazenil is the
specific antidote for benzodiazepine overdose and should be administered to
reverse the life-threatening respiratory depression. Evaluation for suicidal
behavior is important but secondary to stabilizing the airway and breathing .
10. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports cocaine
use 1 hour ago. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Hypotension.
B. Memory loss.
C. Slurred speech.
D. Elevated temperature.
Rationale: Cocaine is a central nervous system stimulant. Manifestations of
cocaine use include elevated temperature, tachycardia, hypertension, dilated
pupils, and increased energy. Hypotension, memory loss, and slurred speech are
more commonly associated with central nervous system depressants like alcohol
or opioids .
