NUR 378 Exam 1 V2 | NUR 378
Pharmacology in Nursing | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NUR378 Exam 1) |
Concordia
1. Subtopic Focus: Foundations of Pharmacology | A nurse is preparing to administer a drug
that is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance. What is a defining characteristic of this
drug class?
A. High potential for abuse with no currently accepted medical use.
B. High potential for abuse that may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.
C. Moderate potential for abuse and low risk of physical dependence.
D. Low potential for abuse relative to Schedule IV substances.
Correct Answer: B
Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and severe dependence, though they
have accepted medical uses. Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use, while
Schedules III-V have decreasing risks of abuse. The classification of controlled substances is
a critical safety component in nursing practice to prevent diversion and ensure proper
documentation. This question tests the nurse’s legal and ethical responsibility regarding
high-risk medications. Nurses must adhere to strict institutional protocols when handling
Schedule II substances to maintain licensure and patient safety.
,2. A nurse is reviewing the pharmacokinetics of a new medication. Which process describes
the movement of a drug from its site of administration into the blood?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
Correct Answer: C
Absorption is the movement of a drug from its site of administration into the blood.
Distribution is the transport to tissues, metabolism is enzymatic alteration, and excretion is
removal from the body. Understanding absorption is fundamental to determining the onset
of drug action and the efficacy of the route chosen. Factors such as blood flow, surface area,
and lipid solubility significantly impact how quickly a drug enters the systemic circulation.
This knowledge allows the nurse to anticipate therapeutic responses and monitor for
delays in medication effects.
3. When monitoring a patient for the first-pass effect, which route of administration should
the nurse identify as being most affected?
A. Sublingual
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Intramuscular
,Correct Answer: C
Oral medications are absorbed from the GI tract and pass through the liver via the portal
vein before reaching systemic circulation, which can significantly reduce the active drug
concentration. Sublingual, IV, and IM routes bypass the liver initially. The first-pass effect
necessitates higher oral doses compared to parenteral doses for the same medication to
achieve therapeutic levels. Clinicians must recognize that patients with hepatic impairment
may experience toxicity due to reduced first-pass metabolism. This concept is essential for
dosage adjustment and route selection in clinical practice.
4. A patient is receiving a drug with a narrow therapeutic index. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
A. Administer the drug at the same time every day.
B. Monitor serum drug levels frequently.
C. Teach the patient about potential side effects.
D. Check the patient’s heart rate before administration.
Correct Answer: B
A narrow therapeutic index means there is a small margin between a therapeutic dose and
a toxic dose; therefore, monitoring blood levels is the priority for safety. While timing and
education are important, they do not directly monitor for toxicity as serum levels do. Safety
in pharmacology is paramount when dealing with drugs that have a slim margin for error.
Regular laboratory monitoring allows for precise dose titration to prevent life-threatening
, adverse reactions. The nurse acts as the final check to ensure the patient remains within
the safe concentration window.
5. Select All That Apply (SATA): A nurse is educating a student about pharmacodynamics.
Which statements regarding drug-receptor interactions are correct?
A. Agonists are molecules that activate receptors.
B. Antagonists produce their effects by preventing receptor activation.
C. A partial agonist has lower maximal efficacy than a full agonist.
D. Antagonists have high intrinsic activity.
E. Selectivity is a desirable quality because it reduces side effects.
F. Receptors are usually enzymes or proteins on the cell surface.
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E, F
Agonists activate receptors (A), antagonists block activation (B), and partial agonists have
less effect than full ones (C). Selectivity (E) limits effects to specific targets, and receptors
are typically proteins (F). Antagonists have affinity but not intrinsic activity (D).
Pharmacodynamics explains how drugs exert their effects on the body through specific
molecular targets. Mastery of these concepts enables the nurse to predict drug behavior
and potential interactions within the body. This understanding is the cornerstone of
rational drug therapy and patient assessment.
Pharmacology in Nursing | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NUR378 Exam 1) |
Concordia
1. Subtopic Focus: Foundations of Pharmacology | A nurse is preparing to administer a drug
that is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance. What is a defining characteristic of this
drug class?
A. High potential for abuse with no currently accepted medical use.
B. High potential for abuse that may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.
C. Moderate potential for abuse and low risk of physical dependence.
D. Low potential for abuse relative to Schedule IV substances.
Correct Answer: B
Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse and severe dependence, though they
have accepted medical uses. Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use, while
Schedules III-V have decreasing risks of abuse. The classification of controlled substances is
a critical safety component in nursing practice to prevent diversion and ensure proper
documentation. This question tests the nurse’s legal and ethical responsibility regarding
high-risk medications. Nurses must adhere to strict institutional protocols when handling
Schedule II substances to maintain licensure and patient safety.
,2. A nurse is reviewing the pharmacokinetics of a new medication. Which process describes
the movement of a drug from its site of administration into the blood?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Absorption
D. Excretion
Correct Answer: C
Absorption is the movement of a drug from its site of administration into the blood.
Distribution is the transport to tissues, metabolism is enzymatic alteration, and excretion is
removal from the body. Understanding absorption is fundamental to determining the onset
of drug action and the efficacy of the route chosen. Factors such as blood flow, surface area,
and lipid solubility significantly impact how quickly a drug enters the systemic circulation.
This knowledge allows the nurse to anticipate therapeutic responses and monitor for
delays in medication effects.
3. When monitoring a patient for the first-pass effect, which route of administration should
the nurse identify as being most affected?
A. Sublingual
B. Intravenous
C. Oral
D. Intramuscular
,Correct Answer: C
Oral medications are absorbed from the GI tract and pass through the liver via the portal
vein before reaching systemic circulation, which can significantly reduce the active drug
concentration. Sublingual, IV, and IM routes bypass the liver initially. The first-pass effect
necessitates higher oral doses compared to parenteral doses for the same medication to
achieve therapeutic levels. Clinicians must recognize that patients with hepatic impairment
may experience toxicity due to reduced first-pass metabolism. This concept is essential for
dosage adjustment and route selection in clinical practice.
4. A patient is receiving a drug with a narrow therapeutic index. What is the nurse’s priority
action?
A. Administer the drug at the same time every day.
B. Monitor serum drug levels frequently.
C. Teach the patient about potential side effects.
D. Check the patient’s heart rate before administration.
Correct Answer: B
A narrow therapeutic index means there is a small margin between a therapeutic dose and
a toxic dose; therefore, monitoring blood levels is the priority for safety. While timing and
education are important, they do not directly monitor for toxicity as serum levels do. Safety
in pharmacology is paramount when dealing with drugs that have a slim margin for error.
Regular laboratory monitoring allows for precise dose titration to prevent life-threatening
, adverse reactions. The nurse acts as the final check to ensure the patient remains within
the safe concentration window.
5. Select All That Apply (SATA): A nurse is educating a student about pharmacodynamics.
Which statements regarding drug-receptor interactions are correct?
A. Agonists are molecules that activate receptors.
B. Antagonists produce their effects by preventing receptor activation.
C. A partial agonist has lower maximal efficacy than a full agonist.
D. Antagonists have high intrinsic activity.
E. Selectivity is a desirable quality because it reduces side effects.
F. Receptors are usually enzymes or proteins on the cell surface.
Correct Answer: A, B, C, E, F
Agonists activate receptors (A), antagonists block activation (B), and partial agonists have
less effect than full ones (C). Selectivity (E) limits effects to specific targets, and receptors
are typically proteins (F). Antagonists have affinity but not intrinsic activity (D).
Pharmacodynamics explains how drugs exert their effects on the body through specific
molecular targets. Mastery of these concepts enables the nurse to predict drug behavior
and potential interactions within the body. This understanding is the cornerstone of
rational drug therapy and patient assessment.
