Exam
**Question 1. Which of the following is the first step in the Integrated Pest
Management (IPM) process?**
A) Monitoring
B) Identification
C) Threshold assessment
D) Control selection
Answer: B
Explanation: The IPM cycle begins with correctly identifying the pest to determine
if management is needed.
**Question 2. A pest population that reaches the point where economic loss
equals the cost of control is known as the:**
A) Economic Threshold (ET)
B) Economic Injury Level (EIL)
C) Action Threshold
D) Damage Threshold
Answer: B
Explanation: The EIL is the pest density at which total cost of damage equals cost
of control; control should be initiated at or above this level.
**Question 3. Which life-cycle type is characteristic of beetles?**
A) Incomplete metamorphosis
B) Complete metamorphosis
C) Direct development
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Exam
D) Parthenogenesis only
Answer: B
Explanation: Beetles undergo complete metamorphosis (egg → larva → pupa →
adult).
**Question 4. Broadleaf weeds are best controlled by which of the following
cultural methods?**
A) Frequent mowing
B) Deep plowing in winter
C) Crop rotation with a grass crop
D) Application of pre-emergent herbicide only
Answer: C
Explanation: Rotating with a grass crop reduces broadleaf weed seed banks by
providing a competitive environment.
**Question 5. A plant showing chlorotic margins, irregular necrotic spots, and
stunted growth is most likely suffering from:**
A) Nutrient deficiency
B) Abiotic stress (drought)
C) Biotic disease (fungal infection)
D) Insect herbivory
Answer: C
Explanation: Necrotic spots and chlorosis are classic symptoms of a fungal or
bacterial disease, indicating a biotic cause.
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Exam
**Question 6. Which of the following signs indicates a rodent infestation in a
field?**
A) Presence of spider webs
B) Chewed seed heads and gnaw marks on equipment
C) Leaf miners on foliage
D) Bird droppings on crops
Answer: B
Explanation: Rodents chew plant material and equipment; gnaw marks are a
direct indicator of their presence.
**Question 7. The “five steps of IPM” do NOT include which of the following?**
A) Evaluation
B) Threshold assessment
C) Pesticide registration
D) Monitoring
Answer: C
Explanation: Pesticide registration is a regulatory activity, not a step in the IPM
decision-making process.
**Question 8. Which formulation type is a water-dispersible granule (WDG)?**
A) A liquid concentrate that must be shaken before use
B) A granular product that dissolves in water to form a suspension
C) A powder that must be mixed with oil before application
D) A ready-to-spray aerosol
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Exam
Answer: B
Explanation: WDGs are granules that disperse in water, creating a uniform
suspension for application.
**Question 9. An emulsifiable concentrate (EC) pesticide must be mixed with
water because:**
A) It is already water-soluble
B) It contains oil-based active ingredient that needs emulsification
C) It is a solid that dissolves in water
D) It is a granular formulation
Answer: B
Explanation: ECs contain oil-based actives; water alone would not mix them, so an
emulsifier creates a stable emulsion.
**Question 10. Which adjuvant is primarily used to increase the spread of a spray
droplet on a leaf surface?**
A) Sticker
B) Buffer
C) Surfactant (spreaders)
D) Detergent
Answer: C
Explanation: Surfactants reduce surface tension, allowing droplets to spread more
evenly over foliage.
**Question 11. When performing a “jar test,” the primary purpose is to:**