NURS 5463 CORE MAIN EXAMINATION ALL
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SURE A+
✔✔A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after a knife injury to
the chest. He is noted to be hypotensive with a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg and an
elevated jugular venous pulse. Bedside ultrasound examination confirms a large cardiac
effusion. While awaiting pericardiocentesis, which of the following is the most important
intervention for the patient to receive? - ✔✔Intravenous fluids
✔✔Which of the following is most likely to cause restrictive cardiomyopathy? -
✔✔Endomyocardial fibrosis
✔✔In a patient who presents to a primary care physician with signs and symptoms of
claudication secondary to peripheral arterial disease, which of the following would be an
ideal initial diagnostic modality? - ✔✔A. D. Ankle-brachial index
✔✔What is the pathophysiologic mechanism by which pain occurs during classic
claudication of the calf muscles? - ✔✔A. Imbalance between oxygen supply and
demand due to inadequate blood flow, resulting in buildup of toxic metabolites
✔✔In a patient with PAD, what should be the ideal LDL goal for preventing further
disease progression? - ✔✔A. Less than100 mg/dL
, ✔✔Which of the following symptoms would categorically suggest a diagnosis of
pseudoclaudication over traditional claudication? - ✔✔A. Severe back and leg pain
while walking downhill but not uphill
✔✔A 67-year-old man is diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease. Modification of
which of the following risk factors would be advisable for this patient? - ✔✔A. Smoking
cessation
B. Diabetes
C. Dyslipidemia
D. Hypertension
E. All of the above
✔✔A 55year-old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of a severe
headache, diplopia, and vomiting. His blood pressure is 210/120 upon arrival. Which of
the following is the best next step? - ✔✔Obtain a head CT scan, give an
antihypertensive such as nicardipine, and admit to the intensive care unit.
✔✔A 54-year-old woman presents to the ED requesting medication refills on her
antihypertensive medications. She has been out of her medications for 2 weeks and
cannot get an appointment with her private physician until next week. She normally
takes atenolol and hydrochlorothiazide. Her blood pressure is 190/100. The patient has
no complaints. She has been waiting for 4 hours and is in a hurry to get back to work.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? - ✔✔A. Give her a prescription
for her medications, instruct her to take them immediately and have her follow-up in 48
hours.
✔✔A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle
collision. After complete evaluation it is determined that he sustained a fracture of the
right tibia. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he is on pharmacological
treatment. The patient is writhing on the gurney in pain. His blood pressure is 210/104.
The patient has no complaints except for right leg pain. Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step in management? - ✔✔A. Pain control and monitor the
patient's blood pressure.
✔✔During your preoperative assessment, a 28-year-old woman complains of dyspnea
on exertion. Upon auscultation of her heart, you notice a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.
This murmur is most characteristic of which valvular lesion? - ✔✔Mitral Stenosis
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SURE A+
✔✔A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after a knife injury to
the chest. He is noted to be hypotensive with a blood pressure of 80/40 mm Hg and an
elevated jugular venous pulse. Bedside ultrasound examination confirms a large cardiac
effusion. While awaiting pericardiocentesis, which of the following is the most important
intervention for the patient to receive? - ✔✔Intravenous fluids
✔✔Which of the following is most likely to cause restrictive cardiomyopathy? -
✔✔Endomyocardial fibrosis
✔✔In a patient who presents to a primary care physician with signs and symptoms of
claudication secondary to peripheral arterial disease, which of the following would be an
ideal initial diagnostic modality? - ✔✔A. D. Ankle-brachial index
✔✔What is the pathophysiologic mechanism by which pain occurs during classic
claudication of the calf muscles? - ✔✔A. Imbalance between oxygen supply and
demand due to inadequate blood flow, resulting in buildup of toxic metabolites
✔✔In a patient with PAD, what should be the ideal LDL goal for preventing further
disease progression? - ✔✔A. Less than100 mg/dL
, ✔✔Which of the following symptoms would categorically suggest a diagnosis of
pseudoclaudication over traditional claudication? - ✔✔A. Severe back and leg pain
while walking downhill but not uphill
✔✔A 67-year-old man is diagnosed with peripheral arterial disease. Modification of
which of the following risk factors would be advisable for this patient? - ✔✔A. Smoking
cessation
B. Diabetes
C. Dyslipidemia
D. Hypertension
E. All of the above
✔✔A 55year-old man presents to the emergency room with complaints of a severe
headache, diplopia, and vomiting. His blood pressure is 210/120 upon arrival. Which of
the following is the best next step? - ✔✔Obtain a head CT scan, give an
antihypertensive such as nicardipine, and admit to the intensive care unit.
✔✔A 54-year-old woman presents to the ED requesting medication refills on her
antihypertensive medications. She has been out of her medications for 2 weeks and
cannot get an appointment with her private physician until next week. She normally
takes atenolol and hydrochlorothiazide. Her blood pressure is 190/100. The patient has
no complaints. She has been waiting for 4 hours and is in a hurry to get back to work.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step? - ✔✔A. Give her a prescription
for her medications, instruct her to take them immediately and have her follow-up in 48
hours.
✔✔A 38-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a motor vehicle
collision. After complete evaluation it is determined that he sustained a fracture of the
right tibia. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he is on pharmacological
treatment. The patient is writhing on the gurney in pain. His blood pressure is 210/104.
The patient has no complaints except for right leg pain. Which of the following is the
most appropriate next step in management? - ✔✔A. Pain control and monitor the
patient's blood pressure.
✔✔During your preoperative assessment, a 28-year-old woman complains of dyspnea
on exertion. Upon auscultation of her heart, you notice a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur.
This murmur is most characteristic of which valvular lesion? - ✔✔Mitral Stenosis
