NURS 5350 Module 8 Quiz V2 | NURS 5350
Role of the Nurse in Advanced Practice |
Actual Q&A with Rationale (NURS5350
Module 8 Quiz) | The University of Texas
at Arlington
1. Which of the following describes ‘incident-to’ billing according to Medicare guidelines?
A. Services provided by an NP that are integral to a physician’s professional service and
performed under direct supervision.
B. Billing for services provided by the NP when the physician is not in the office suite.
C. Billing at 85% of the Physician Fee Schedule for services provided independently.
D. Services provided by the NP in an inpatient hospital setting under the physician’s name.
Answer: A
Rationale: Incident-to billing allows services provided by non-physician practitioners to
be billed at 100% of the physician fee schedule. To qualify, the physician must have
performed the initial service and remain actively involved in the course of treatment. The
physician must also be physically present in the office suite when the service is rendered
by the NP.
2. What is the primary purpose of the ‘Consensus Model for APRN Regulation’?
A. To limit the scope of practice for Nurse Practitioners across state lines.
,B. To establish a national board of nursing that replaces state-level authority.
C. To provide a framework for uniformity in licensure, accreditation, certification, and
education for APRNs.
D. To mandate that all APRNs work under a collaborative practice agreement with a
physician.
Answer: C
Rationale: The Consensus Model, often referred to as LACE, seeks to standardize APRN
regulation across the United States. It defines the four APRN roles: CNP, CNS, CRNA, and
CNM. This alignment is critical for ensuring that APRNs can practice to the full extent of
their education and training while facilitating license portability.
3. In the context of malpractice, which element must the plaintiff prove to establish
negligence?
A. The provider intended to cause harm to the patient.
B. The provider was not board certified in the specialty they were practicing.
C. A breach of the standard of care directly resulted in damages or injury to the patient.
D. The patient was dissatisfied with the outcome of the prescribed treatment.
Answer: C
Rationale: Malpractice requires four specific elements: duty, breach of duty, causation, and
damages. The plaintiff must show that the NP had a duty to the patient and failed to meet
, the established standard of care. Furthermore, it must be proven that this specific breach
was the proximate cause of the patient’s actual injury.
4. Which type of professional liability insurance covers claims only if the policy is active at the
time the claim is filed?
A. Occurrence-based policy
B. Prior acts coverage
C. Tail coverage policy
D. Claims-made policy
Answer: D
Rationale: A claims-made policy only provides coverage if the claim is reported during the
policy period. If an NP leaves a job or switches insurers, they may need to purchase ‘tail
coverage’ to protect against future claims from past events. This differs from occurrence-
based policies, which cover any incident that happened during the policy period regardless
of when the claim is made.
5. What does the ‘NPI’ number represent for an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse?
A. A state-specific identification number for prescribing controlled substances.
B. A unique 10-digit identification number for covered health care providers used in
financial and administrative transactions.
C. A certification number issued by the American Nurses Credentialing Center.
Role of the Nurse in Advanced Practice |
Actual Q&A with Rationale (NURS5350
Module 8 Quiz) | The University of Texas
at Arlington
1. Which of the following describes ‘incident-to’ billing according to Medicare guidelines?
A. Services provided by an NP that are integral to a physician’s professional service and
performed under direct supervision.
B. Billing for services provided by the NP when the physician is not in the office suite.
C. Billing at 85% of the Physician Fee Schedule for services provided independently.
D. Services provided by the NP in an inpatient hospital setting under the physician’s name.
Answer: A
Rationale: Incident-to billing allows services provided by non-physician practitioners to
be billed at 100% of the physician fee schedule. To qualify, the physician must have
performed the initial service and remain actively involved in the course of treatment. The
physician must also be physically present in the office suite when the service is rendered
by the NP.
2. What is the primary purpose of the ‘Consensus Model for APRN Regulation’?
A. To limit the scope of practice for Nurse Practitioners across state lines.
,B. To establish a national board of nursing that replaces state-level authority.
C. To provide a framework for uniformity in licensure, accreditation, certification, and
education for APRNs.
D. To mandate that all APRNs work under a collaborative practice agreement with a
physician.
Answer: C
Rationale: The Consensus Model, often referred to as LACE, seeks to standardize APRN
regulation across the United States. It defines the four APRN roles: CNP, CNS, CRNA, and
CNM. This alignment is critical for ensuring that APRNs can practice to the full extent of
their education and training while facilitating license portability.
3. In the context of malpractice, which element must the plaintiff prove to establish
negligence?
A. The provider intended to cause harm to the patient.
B. The provider was not board certified in the specialty they were practicing.
C. A breach of the standard of care directly resulted in damages or injury to the patient.
D. The patient was dissatisfied with the outcome of the prescribed treatment.
Answer: C
Rationale: Malpractice requires four specific elements: duty, breach of duty, causation, and
damages. The plaintiff must show that the NP had a duty to the patient and failed to meet
, the established standard of care. Furthermore, it must be proven that this specific breach
was the proximate cause of the patient’s actual injury.
4. Which type of professional liability insurance covers claims only if the policy is active at the
time the claim is filed?
A. Occurrence-based policy
B. Prior acts coverage
C. Tail coverage policy
D. Claims-made policy
Answer: D
Rationale: A claims-made policy only provides coverage if the claim is reported during the
policy period. If an NP leaves a job or switches insurers, they may need to purchase ‘tail
coverage’ to protect against future claims from past events. This differs from occurrence-
based policies, which cover any incident that happened during the policy period regardless
of when the claim is made.
5. What does the ‘NPI’ number represent for an Advanced Practice Registered Nurse?
A. A state-specific identification number for prescribing controlled substances.
B. A unique 10-digit identification number for covered health care providers used in
financial and administrative transactions.
C. A certification number issued by the American Nurses Credentialing Center.
