NURS 5130 Exam 2 V3 | NURS 5130
Comprehensive Assessment – Pediatric
Assessment Lab | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (NURS5130 Exam 2) | The
University of Texas at Arlington
1. When assessing the tympanic membrane of a 2-year-old child, in which direction should
the nurse practitioner pull the pinna to facilitate visualization?
A. Down and back
B. Up and back
C. Straight back
D. Straight down
Answer: A
Rationale: In children under the age of 3, the external auditory canal is shorter and
directed more downward. Pulling the pinna down and back helps straighten the canal for
better visualization of the tympanic membrane. In older children and adults, the pinna is
pulled up and back.
2. A 9-month-old infant is being examined for a well-child visit. Which developmental
milestone should the nurse practitioner expect the child to have achieved?
A. Walking without assistance
,B. Crawling and pulling to a standing position
C. Speaking in two-word sentences
D. Stacking three blocks
Answer: B
Rationale: By 9 months of age, most infants are able to crawl and begin pulling themselves
up to a standing position using furniture. Walking independently usually occurs around 12
months, and speaking sentences is a later development. Stacking blocks typically occurs
during the second year of life.
3. Which of the following maneuvers is specifically used to assess for developmental
dysplasia of the hip in a newborn by attempting to relocate a dislocated femoral head?
A. Gower’s sign
B. Barlow maneuver
C. Ortolani maneuver
D. Trendelenburg test
Answer: C
Rationale: The Ortolani maneuver is performed by abducting the hips to see if the femoral
head slips back into the acetabulum with a palpable ‘clunk.’ The Barlow maneuver is the
opposite, attempting to dislocate an unstable hip. Both are essential components of the
neonatal orthopedic assessment to screen for hip dysplasia.
, 4. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 4-year-old child’s vision using the Snellen E chart. The
child’s vision is recorded as 20/40. How should this finding be interpreted?
A. The child can see at 20 feet what a normal eye sees at 40 feet.
B. The child has perfect vision for their age group.
C. The child can see at 40 feet what a normal eye sees at 20 feet.
D. The child has legal blindness in the affected eye.
Answer: A
Rationale: In visual acuity testing, the numerator represents the distance the patient is
from the chart (20 feet). The denominator represents the distance at which a person with
normal vision could read that line. A result of 20/40 suggests the child needs to be closer to
objects to see them as clearly as a person with standard vision.
5. During the examination of a 2-month-old infant, the nurse practitioner notes a soft,
pulsatile area on the top of the head. This is identified as the anterior fontanelle. When does
this typically close?
A. Between 12 and 18 months of age
B. By 2 to 3 months of age
C. Exactly at 6 months of age
D. After the child begins to walk
Answer: A
Comprehensive Assessment – Pediatric
Assessment Lab | Actual Q&A with
Rationale (NURS5130 Exam 2) | The
University of Texas at Arlington
1. When assessing the tympanic membrane of a 2-year-old child, in which direction should
the nurse practitioner pull the pinna to facilitate visualization?
A. Down and back
B. Up and back
C. Straight back
D. Straight down
Answer: A
Rationale: In children under the age of 3, the external auditory canal is shorter and
directed more downward. Pulling the pinna down and back helps straighten the canal for
better visualization of the tympanic membrane. In older children and adults, the pinna is
pulled up and back.
2. A 9-month-old infant is being examined for a well-child visit. Which developmental
milestone should the nurse practitioner expect the child to have achieved?
A. Walking without assistance
,B. Crawling and pulling to a standing position
C. Speaking in two-word sentences
D. Stacking three blocks
Answer: B
Rationale: By 9 months of age, most infants are able to crawl and begin pulling themselves
up to a standing position using furniture. Walking independently usually occurs around 12
months, and speaking sentences is a later development. Stacking blocks typically occurs
during the second year of life.
3. Which of the following maneuvers is specifically used to assess for developmental
dysplasia of the hip in a newborn by attempting to relocate a dislocated femoral head?
A. Gower’s sign
B. Barlow maneuver
C. Ortolani maneuver
D. Trendelenburg test
Answer: C
Rationale: The Ortolani maneuver is performed by abducting the hips to see if the femoral
head slips back into the acetabulum with a palpable ‘clunk.’ The Barlow maneuver is the
opposite, attempting to dislocate an unstable hip. Both are essential components of the
neonatal orthopedic assessment to screen for hip dysplasia.
, 4. A nurse practitioner is assessing a 4-year-old child’s vision using the Snellen E chart. The
child’s vision is recorded as 20/40. How should this finding be interpreted?
A. The child can see at 20 feet what a normal eye sees at 40 feet.
B. The child has perfect vision for their age group.
C. The child can see at 40 feet what a normal eye sees at 20 feet.
D. The child has legal blindness in the affected eye.
Answer: A
Rationale: In visual acuity testing, the numerator represents the distance the patient is
from the chart (20 feet). The denominator represents the distance at which a person with
normal vision could read that line. A result of 20/40 suggests the child needs to be closer to
objects to see them as clearly as a person with standard vision.
5. During the examination of a 2-month-old infant, the nurse practitioner notes a soft,
pulsatile area on the top of the head. This is identified as the anterior fontanelle. When does
this typically close?
A. Between 12 and 18 months of age
B. By 2 to 3 months of age
C. Exactly at 6 months of age
D. After the child begins to walk
Answer: A
