RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR TEST BANK 2026
COMPREHENSIVE SET WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
1. A home health nurse is caring for a child who has Lyme disease. Which of the following is
an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Ensure the state health department has been notified
B. Administer antitoxin
C. Educate the family to avoid sharing personal belongings
D. Assess for skin necrosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lyme disease is a reportable communicable disease in most states. The nurse must
ensure proper notification to public health authorities. Antitoxin is not used for Lyme disease
(antibiotics are). Skin necrosis is not a characteristic finding of Lyme disease; erythema migrans
is the classic rash.
2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the
following is the priority assessment?
A. Monitor serum electrolytes
B. Check the infusion pump settings
C. Measure daily weight
D. Check capillary blood glucose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperglycemia is a common complication of TPN due to the high glucose content in
the solution. Blood glucose should be monitored every 4–6 hours as the priority assessment.
While electrolyte monitoring, pump settings, and weight are important, they are secondary to
detecting and managing hyperglycemia, which can lead to serious complications including
hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome.
3. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
monitor to determine therapeutic effect?
A. Platelet count
B. aPTT
C. PT/INR
D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored using PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International
Normalized Ratio). The therapeutic INR range for most indications is 2.0–3.0. Platelet count
monitors for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, aPTT monitors heparin therapy, and
hemoglobin monitors for bleeding but does not assess therapeutic effect.
,4. A client who has a diagnosis of complete placenta previa is admitted to the labor and
delivery suite at 36 weeks gestation with contractions 5 minutes apart and 1 minute in
duration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Rupture the amniotic sac
B. Medicate the client for pain
C. Prepare the client for a cesarean section
D. Perform a vaginal exam
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Complete placenta previa is an absolute contraindication to vaginal delivery. With
active labor at 36 weeks, the priority is to prepare for an emergency cesarean section to prevent
massive hemorrhage. Vaginal examination is contraindicated as it can precipitate severe
bleeding. Rupturing membranes and pain medication do not address the underlying emergency.
5. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client lying on the floor in a puddle of water.
Which of the following statements should the nurse document in an incident report?
A. Client fell out of bed because an assistive personnel left the rails of the bed down
B. Client's roommate thinks the client is confused and fell when getting out of bed
C. Client appears to have slipped in water but reports no injuries
D. Client found lying on the floor near the bedside table
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Incident reports should contain objective, factual documentation without
assumptions, opinions, or blame. "Client found lying on the floor near the bedside table" is an
objective statement. Options A, B, and C contain assumptions, opinions, or subjective
interpretations.
6. A charge nurse on a pediatric unit is making assignments for a float nurse from the medical
unit. Which of the following clients is appropriate to assign to the float nurse?
A. A 10-year-old client who has pneumonia and is receiving respiratory treatments
B. A 4-year-old client who has a Wilms tumor and is receiving chemotherapy
C. An 8-month-old client who is scheduled for a surgical repair of a ventricular septal defect
tomorrow
D. A 14-year-old client who is scheduled for discharge today following placement of a
Harrington rod
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A float nurse from the medical unit would be most competent to care for a client
with pneumonia receiving respiratory treatments, as this is within the scope of general medical-
surgical nursing. The other options involve specialized pediatric oncology, cardiac surgery, or
orthopedic surgery care that require more specialized pediatric expertise.
7. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a postpartum client. Which of the following should the
nurse explain as the most important reason for staff to wear identification?
A. Preventing medication errors
,B. Reducing the risk of newborn abduction
C. Ensuring proper documentation
D. Maintaining infection control
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important reason for staff to wear identification in the postpartum setting
is to reduce the risk of newborn abduction. Identification badges help verify that individuals
accessing the newborn are authorized staff members.
8. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who plans to bottle feed her newborn. Which of
the following statements indicates an understanding of the instructions?
A. "I will feed my baby six to eight times a day"
B. "I will feed my baby every 4 hours"
C. "I will feed my baby only when she cries"
D. "I will feed my baby 12 times a day"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Newborns should be fed approximately every 2–4 hours, which typically results in 6–
8 feedings per day. This schedule supports adequate nutrition and hydration while allowing for
appropriate growth and development.
9. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client diagnosed with osteoarthritis who reports joint
pain, swelling, and stiffness. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding
of the teaching?
A. "I will exercise my joints as much as I can when they are inflamed"
B. "I will avoid all exercise during flare-ups"
C. "I will rest my joints completely until the pain subsides"
D. "I will only exercise when I have no pain at all"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For osteoarthritis, gentle range-of-motion exercises during inflammation help
maintain joint function and reduce stiffness. Complete rest can lead to muscle weakness and
increased joint stiffness. Exercise should be modified but not eliminated during flare-ups.
10. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is scheduled for a mammogram. Which of
the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Refrain from using deodorant on the morning of the test
B. Eat a light breakfast before the test
C. Avoid drinking fluids for 4 hours before the test
D. Take a mild sedative before the test
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients should refrain from using deodorant, antiperspirant, powder, or lotion on the
day of the mammogram as these products can appear as artifacts on the images and interfere
with accurate interpretation.
, 11. A nurse is preparing a client's insulin regimen. Which of the following insulins can be
mixed?
A. Insulin aspart, regular insulin, insulin lispro
B. Insulin glargine and regular insulin
C. Insulin detemir and insulin aspart
D. Insulin glargine and insulin lispro
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin aspart, regular insulin, and insulin lispro are all rapid-acting or short-acting
insulins that can be mixed with each other or with intermediate-acting insulins. Insulin glargine
and insulin detemir are long-acting insulins that should NOT be mixed with other insulins.
12. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following laser
surgery for open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an
understanding of the instructions?
A. "I will take a stool softener to prevent constipation"
B. "I will avoid reading for 2 weeks"
C. "I will sleep on my stomach"
D. "I will resume heavy lifting after 1 week"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Following eye surgery, straining from constipation can increase intraocular pressure.
Taking a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which protects the
surgical site and prevents increased intraocular pressure.
13. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and is having difficulty swallowing. The
nurse should recommend a referral to which of the following members of the
interprofessional team?
A. Physical therapist
B. Occupational therapist
C. Speech therapist
D. Dietitian
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A speech-language pathologist (speech therapist) is the appropriate referral for a
client with dysphagia following a stroke. They assess swallowing function and recommend
appropriate diet textures and swallowing techniques to prevent aspiration.
14. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is 12 hours postpartum and has an
episiotomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Change the perineal pad with each void
B. Apply ice packs continuously for 48 hours
C. Avoid sitz baths for the first week
D. Use only warm water for perineal care
Correct Answer: A
COMPREHENSIVE SET WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
1. A home health nurse is caring for a child who has Lyme disease. Which of the following is
an appropriate action for the nurse to take?
A. Ensure the state health department has been notified
B. Administer antitoxin
C. Educate the family to avoid sharing personal belongings
D. Assess for skin necrosis
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lyme disease is a reportable communicable disease in most states. The nurse must
ensure proper notification to public health authorities. Antitoxin is not used for Lyme disease
(antibiotics are). Skin necrosis is not a characteristic finding of Lyme disease; erythema migrans
is the classic rash.
2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the
following is the priority assessment?
A. Monitor serum electrolytes
B. Check the infusion pump settings
C. Measure daily weight
D. Check capillary blood glucose
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Hyperglycemia is a common complication of TPN due to the high glucose content in
the solution. Blood glucose should be monitored every 4–6 hours as the priority assessment.
While electrolyte monitoring, pump settings, and weight are important, they are secondary to
detecting and managing hyperglycemia, which can lead to serious complications including
hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome.
3. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse
monitor to determine therapeutic effect?
A. Platelet count
B. aPTT
C. PT/INR
D. Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored using PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International
Normalized Ratio). The therapeutic INR range for most indications is 2.0–3.0. Platelet count
monitors for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, aPTT monitors heparin therapy, and
hemoglobin monitors for bleeding but does not assess therapeutic effect.
,4. A client who has a diagnosis of complete placenta previa is admitted to the labor and
delivery suite at 36 weeks gestation with contractions 5 minutes apart and 1 minute in
duration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Rupture the amniotic sac
B. Medicate the client for pain
C. Prepare the client for a cesarean section
D. Perform a vaginal exam
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Complete placenta previa is an absolute contraindication to vaginal delivery. With
active labor at 36 weeks, the priority is to prepare for an emergency cesarean section to prevent
massive hemorrhage. Vaginal examination is contraindicated as it can precipitate severe
bleeding. Rupturing membranes and pain medication do not address the underlying emergency.
5. A nurse enters a client's room and finds the client lying on the floor in a puddle of water.
Which of the following statements should the nurse document in an incident report?
A. Client fell out of bed because an assistive personnel left the rails of the bed down
B. Client's roommate thinks the client is confused and fell when getting out of bed
C. Client appears to have slipped in water but reports no injuries
D. Client found lying on the floor near the bedside table
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Incident reports should contain objective, factual documentation without
assumptions, opinions, or blame. "Client found lying on the floor near the bedside table" is an
objective statement. Options A, B, and C contain assumptions, opinions, or subjective
interpretations.
6. A charge nurse on a pediatric unit is making assignments for a float nurse from the medical
unit. Which of the following clients is appropriate to assign to the float nurse?
A. A 10-year-old client who has pneumonia and is receiving respiratory treatments
B. A 4-year-old client who has a Wilms tumor and is receiving chemotherapy
C. An 8-month-old client who is scheduled for a surgical repair of a ventricular septal defect
tomorrow
D. A 14-year-old client who is scheduled for discharge today following placement of a
Harrington rod
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A float nurse from the medical unit would be most competent to care for a client
with pneumonia receiving respiratory treatments, as this is within the scope of general medical-
surgical nursing. The other options involve specialized pediatric oncology, cardiac surgery, or
orthopedic surgery care that require more specialized pediatric expertise.
7. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a postpartum client. Which of the following should the
nurse explain as the most important reason for staff to wear identification?
A. Preventing medication errors
,B. Reducing the risk of newborn abduction
C. Ensuring proper documentation
D. Maintaining infection control
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important reason for staff to wear identification in the postpartum setting
is to reduce the risk of newborn abduction. Identification badges help verify that individuals
accessing the newborn are authorized staff members.
8. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who plans to bottle feed her newborn. Which of
the following statements indicates an understanding of the instructions?
A. "I will feed my baby six to eight times a day"
B. "I will feed my baby every 4 hours"
C. "I will feed my baby only when she cries"
D. "I will feed my baby 12 times a day"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Newborns should be fed approximately every 2–4 hours, which typically results in 6–
8 feedings per day. This schedule supports adequate nutrition and hydration while allowing for
appropriate growth and development.
9. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client diagnosed with osteoarthritis who reports joint
pain, swelling, and stiffness. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding
of the teaching?
A. "I will exercise my joints as much as I can when they are inflamed"
B. "I will avoid all exercise during flare-ups"
C. "I will rest my joints completely until the pain subsides"
D. "I will only exercise when I have no pain at all"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For osteoarthritis, gentle range-of-motion exercises during inflammation help
maintain joint function and reduce stiffness. Complete rest can lead to muscle weakness and
increased joint stiffness. Exercise should be modified but not eliminated during flare-ups.
10. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is scheduled for a mammogram. Which of
the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
A. Refrain from using deodorant on the morning of the test
B. Eat a light breakfast before the test
C. Avoid drinking fluids for 4 hours before the test
D. Take a mild sedative before the test
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clients should refrain from using deodorant, antiperspirant, powder, or lotion on the
day of the mammogram as these products can appear as artifacts on the images and interfere
with accurate interpretation.
, 11. A nurse is preparing a client's insulin regimen. Which of the following insulins can be
mixed?
A. Insulin aspart, regular insulin, insulin lispro
B. Insulin glargine and regular insulin
C. Insulin detemir and insulin aspart
D. Insulin glargine and insulin lispro
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin aspart, regular insulin, and insulin lispro are all rapid-acting or short-acting
insulins that can be mixed with each other or with intermediate-acting insulins. Insulin glargine
and insulin detemir are long-acting insulins that should NOT be mixed with other insulins.
12. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who is postoperative following laser
surgery for open-angle glaucoma. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an
understanding of the instructions?
A. "I will take a stool softener to prevent constipation"
B. "I will avoid reading for 2 weeks"
C. "I will sleep on my stomach"
D. "I will resume heavy lifting after 1 week"
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Following eye surgery, straining from constipation can increase intraocular pressure.
Taking a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, which protects the
surgical site and prevents increased intraocular pressure.
13. A nurse is caring for a client who had a stroke and is having difficulty swallowing. The
nurse should recommend a referral to which of the following members of the
interprofessional team?
A. Physical therapist
B. Occupational therapist
C. Speech therapist
D. Dietitian
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A speech-language pathologist (speech therapist) is the appropriate referral for a
client with dysphagia following a stroke. They assess swallowing function and recommend
appropriate diet textures and swallowing techniques to prevent aspiration.
14. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is 12 hours postpartum and has an
episiotomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Change the perineal pad with each void
B. Apply ice packs continuously for 48 hours
C. Avoid sitz baths for the first week
D. Use only warm water for perineal care
Correct Answer: A
