Fall Semester 2026–2027 ATI Comprehensive Predictor Updated 2026 |
190+ Questions and Answers | ATI Comprehensive Predictor
Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice Exam, Exam Prep Test Bank,
NCLEX-RN Readiness, Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical Nursing,
Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Leadership
& Management, Community Health, Next Generation NCLEX (NGN),
Detailed Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total
hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to
prevent dislocation of the new joint?
A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
B. Keep the client's hips in an adducted position.
C. Position the client's operative leg in internal rotation.
D. Maintain the head of the bed at a 90-degree angle.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
Rationale: Placing an abduction pillow between the legs maintains hip abduction and
prevents adduction and internal rotation, which are the primary positions that can cause
dislocation of a new hip prosthesis.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 6.2
mEq/L. Which of the following ECG changes should the nurse expect to see?
A. Prominent U waves
B. Flattened T waves
C. Tall, peaked T waves
D. ST segment depression
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tall, peaked T waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) causes classic ECG changes,
including tall, peaked (tented) T waves. Prominent U waves and flattened T waves are
associated with hypokalemia.
Question 3: A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of
diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the priority intervention for the
nurse to include?
A. Teaching the client about foot care.
B. Administering prescribed insulin.
C. Educating the client on carbohydrate counting.
D. Referring the client to a diabetes support group.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Administering prescribed insulin.
Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing,
Circulation), physiological needs are the priority. Administering insulin to manage blood
glucose levels is the most immediate and critical nursing action to prevent acute
complications like DKA or HHNS.
Question 4: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
,A. "I will avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables."
B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush to brush my teeth."
C. "I will take ibuprofen for my headaches."
D. "I will have my blood drawn regularly as scheduled."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will take ibuprofen for my headaches."
Rationale: Ibuprofen (an NSAID) increases the risk of bleeding when taken concurrently
with warfarin (an anticoagulant). The client should be instructed to use acetaminophen
for pain or headaches instead.
Question 5: A nurse is performing a head-to-toe assessment on a client. Which
of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a sign of
increased intracranial pressure?
A. A heart rate of 100/min
B. A respiratory rate of 24/min
C. A systolic blood pressure of 150 mm Hg
D. A fixed and dilated pupil
CORRECT ANSWER: D. A fixed and dilated pupil
Rationale: A fixed and dilated pupil is a late and critical sign of increased ICP, indicating
uncal herniation and brainstem compression. Cushing's triad (bradycardia, irregular
respirations, and hypertension) is also a key sign, but a fixed pupil is a more immediate
neurological emergency.
Question 6: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client.
Which of the following actions is most important to take prior to the
transfusion?
A. Obtain the client's baseline vital signs.
B. Ensure the client has signed a consent form.
C. Verify the blood product with another licensed nurse.
D. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Verify the blood product with another licensed nurse.
Rationale: While all options are important, the most critical step to prevent fatal
transfusion errors is the bedside verification of the blood product with another licensed
nurse. This includes checking the client's ID, blood type, Rh factor, and expiration date.
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client who is in the active phase of labor.
The fetal heart rate shows late decelerations. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the IV fluid rate.
B. Prepare the client for a Cesarean section.
C. Administer oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
D. Position the client on her left side.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Position the client on her left side.
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The first action is to
position the client on her side (preferably left) to increase blood flow to the placenta.
Then, the nurse should administer oxygen and increase IV fluids.
,Question 8: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium depletion
(hypokalemia). This can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias, especially in clients taking
cardiac glycosides like digoxin.
Question 9: A nurse is teaching a client about breast self-examination. Which
of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Perform the exam on the first day of your menstrual period.
B. Perform the exam while lying down with your arm raised above your head.
C. Perform the exam using a circular motion, moving from the center outward.
D. Use the pads of your fingers to palpate the breast tissue.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Use the pads of your fingers to palpate the breast
tissue.
Rationale: The pads of the fingers are the most sensitive part of the hand to detect
lumps. The exam should be performed a few days after the period ends, not on the first
day, and using a vertical strip pattern or circular pattern is acceptable.
Question 10: A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculosis skin test. Which
of the following is the correct site for the injection?
A. The deltoid muscle
B. The ventrogluteal muscle
C. The inner surface of the forearm
D. The vastus lateralis muscle
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The inner surface of the forearm
Rationale: The TB skin test (PPD) is administered intradermally, and the preferred site is
the inner surface of the forearm, approximately 4 inches below the elbow.
Question 11: A nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery
following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should be reported
to the provider immediately?
A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing.
B. Hoarseness of the voice.
C. Pain at the incision site.
D. Tingling around the mouth and fingers.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Tingling around the mouth and fingers.
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth and fingers (perioral and digital paresthesia) is an
early sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur if the parathyroid glands are accidentally
damaged or removed during thyroid surgery. This can lead to life-threatening
laryngospasm and tetany.
, Question 12: A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to prevent complications?
A. Hang the TPN solution with a microdrip chamber.
B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
C. Monitor blood glucose levels every 12 hours.
D. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
Rationale: TPN tubing should be changed every 24 hours to prevent infection. TPN is a
hypertonic solution that requires a central line, and blood glucose should be monitored
every 4-6 hours due to the high dextrose content.
Question 13: A nurse is providing care for a client with a chest tube connected
to a water-seal drainage system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the
water-seal chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Clamp the chest tube.
B. Milk the chest tube to clear the obstruction.
C. Notify the provider immediately.
D. Check the system for an air leak.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Check the system for an air leak.
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak. The
nurse should first check the system for external leaks (e.g., loose connections) before
notifying the provider. Clamping the tube is dangerous and should only be done briefly
to locate a leak.
Question 14: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-partum. The
client reports pain in her right calf. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take first?
A. Apply a warm compress to the calf.
B. Massage the client's calf.
C. Measure the circumference of the calf.
D. Instruct the client to dorsiflex her foot.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Measure the circumference of the calf.
Rationale: Pain in the calf is a sign of a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The nurse
should assess and compare the circumference of both calves to check for swelling.
Massaging the leg is contraindicated due to the risk of emboli.
Question 15: A nurse is teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) about pursed-lip breathing. What is the primary purpose of
this technique?
A. To increase carbon dioxide levels in the blood.
B. To decrease the work of breathing.
C. To keep the airways open longer for exhalation.
D. To increase the respiratory rate.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. To keep the airways open longer for exhalation.
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing prevents the collapse of small airways by maintaining
190+ Questions and Answers | ATI Comprehensive Predictor
Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice Exam, Exam Prep Test Bank,
NCLEX-RN Readiness, Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical Nursing,
Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn, Pediatrics, Mental Health, Leadership
& Management, Community Health, Next Generation NCLEX (NGN),
Detailed Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total
hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to
prevent dislocation of the new joint?
A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
B. Keep the client's hips in an adducted position.
C. Position the client's operative leg in internal rotation.
D. Maintain the head of the bed at a 90-degree angle.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Place a pillow between the client's legs when turning.
Rationale: Placing an abduction pillow between the legs maintains hip abduction and
prevents adduction and internal rotation, which are the primary positions that can cause
dislocation of a new hip prosthesis.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client who has a potassium level of 6.2
mEq/L. Which of the following ECG changes should the nurse expect to see?
A. Prominent U waves
B. Flattened T waves
C. Tall, peaked T waves
D. ST segment depression
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Tall, peaked T waves
Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) causes classic ECG changes,
including tall, peaked (tented) T waves. Prominent U waves and flattened T waves are
associated with hypokalemia.
Question 3: A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of
diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is the priority intervention for the
nurse to include?
A. Teaching the client about foot care.
B. Administering prescribed insulin.
C. Educating the client on carbohydrate counting.
D. Referring the client to a diabetes support group.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Administering prescribed insulin.
Rationale: According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing,
Circulation), physiological needs are the priority. Administering insulin to manage blood
glucose levels is the most immediate and critical nursing action to prevent acute
complications like DKA or HHNS.
Question 4: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
,A. "I will avoid eating large amounts of leafy green vegetables."
B. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush to brush my teeth."
C. "I will take ibuprofen for my headaches."
D. "I will have my blood drawn regularly as scheduled."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. "I will take ibuprofen for my headaches."
Rationale: Ibuprofen (an NSAID) increases the risk of bleeding when taken concurrently
with warfarin (an anticoagulant). The client should be instructed to use acetaminophen
for pain or headaches instead.
Question 5: A nurse is performing a head-to-toe assessment on a client. Which
of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a sign of
increased intracranial pressure?
A. A heart rate of 100/min
B. A respiratory rate of 24/min
C. A systolic blood pressure of 150 mm Hg
D. A fixed and dilated pupil
CORRECT ANSWER: D. A fixed and dilated pupil
Rationale: A fixed and dilated pupil is a late and critical sign of increased ICP, indicating
uncal herniation and brainstem compression. Cushing's triad (bradycardia, irregular
respirations, and hypertension) is also a key sign, but a fixed pupil is a more immediate
neurological emergency.
Question 6: A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client.
Which of the following actions is most important to take prior to the
transfusion?
A. Obtain the client's baseline vital signs.
B. Ensure the client has signed a consent form.
C. Verify the blood product with another licensed nurse.
D. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Verify the blood product with another licensed nurse.
Rationale: While all options are important, the most critical step to prevent fatal
transfusion errors is the bedside verification of the blood product with another licensed
nurse. This includes checking the client's ID, blood type, Rh factor, and expiration date.
Question 7: A nurse is caring for a client who is in the active phase of labor.
The fetal heart rate shows late decelerations. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the IV fluid rate.
B. Prepare the client for a Cesarean section.
C. Administer oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
D. Position the client on her left side.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Position the client on her left side.
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The first action is to
position the client on her side (preferably left) to increase blood flow to the placenta.
Then, the nurse should administer oxygen and increase IV fluids.
,Question 8: A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potassium
C. Serum calcium
D. Serum magnesium
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause significant potassium depletion
(hypokalemia). This can lead to serious cardiac dysrhythmias, especially in clients taking
cardiac glycosides like digoxin.
Question 9: A nurse is teaching a client about breast self-examination. Which
of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Perform the exam on the first day of your menstrual period.
B. Perform the exam while lying down with your arm raised above your head.
C. Perform the exam using a circular motion, moving from the center outward.
D. Use the pads of your fingers to palpate the breast tissue.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Use the pads of your fingers to palpate the breast
tissue.
Rationale: The pads of the fingers are the most sensitive part of the hand to detect
lumps. The exam should be performed a few days after the period ends, not on the first
day, and using a vertical strip pattern or circular pattern is acceptable.
Question 10: A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculosis skin test. Which
of the following is the correct site for the injection?
A. The deltoid muscle
B. The ventrogluteal muscle
C. The inner surface of the forearm
D. The vastus lateralis muscle
CORRECT ANSWER: C. The inner surface of the forearm
Rationale: The TB skin test (PPD) is administered intradermally, and the preferred site is
the inner surface of the forearm, approximately 4 inches below the elbow.
Question 11: A nurse is assessing a client who has just returned from surgery
following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should be reported
to the provider immediately?
A. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing.
B. Hoarseness of the voice.
C. Pain at the incision site.
D. Tingling around the mouth and fingers.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Tingling around the mouth and fingers.
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth and fingers (perioral and digital paresthesia) is an
early sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur if the parathyroid glands are accidentally
damaged or removed during thyroid surgery. This can lead to life-threatening
laryngospasm and tetany.
, Question 12: A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to prevent complications?
A. Hang the TPN solution with a microdrip chamber.
B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
C. Monitor blood glucose levels every 12 hours.
D. Administer the TPN through a peripheral IV line.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
Rationale: TPN tubing should be changed every 24 hours to prevent infection. TPN is a
hypertonic solution that requires a central line, and blood glucose should be monitored
every 4-6 hours due to the high dextrose content.
Question 13: A nurse is providing care for a client with a chest tube connected
to a water-seal drainage system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the
water-seal chamber. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Clamp the chest tube.
B. Milk the chest tube to clear the obstruction.
C. Notify the provider immediately.
D. Check the system for an air leak.
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Check the system for an air leak.
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak. The
nurse should first check the system for external leaks (e.g., loose connections) before
notifying the provider. Clamping the tube is dangerous and should only be done briefly
to locate a leak.
Question 14: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days post-partum. The
client reports pain in her right calf. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take first?
A. Apply a warm compress to the calf.
B. Massage the client's calf.
C. Measure the circumference of the calf.
D. Instruct the client to dorsiflex her foot.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Measure the circumference of the calf.
Rationale: Pain in the calf is a sign of a possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The nurse
should assess and compare the circumference of both calves to check for swelling.
Massaging the leg is contraindicated due to the risk of emboli.
Question 15: A nurse is teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD) about pursed-lip breathing. What is the primary purpose of
this technique?
A. To increase carbon dioxide levels in the blood.
B. To decrease the work of breathing.
C. To keep the airways open longer for exhalation.
D. To increase the respiratory rate.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. To keep the airways open longer for exhalation.
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing prevents the collapse of small airways by maintaining
