Fall Semester 2026–2027 ATI Comprehensive
Predictor Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and
Answers | ATI Comprehensive Predictor
Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice Exam, Exam
Prep Test Bank, NCLEX-RN Readiness,
Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn,
Pediatrics, Mental Health, Leadership, Community
Health, Next Generation NCLEX (NGN), Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
B. "I will take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches."
C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care."
D. "I will expect my urine to turn a bright orange color."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care.
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Using a soft-
bristled toothbrush minimizes gum trauma and reduces the risk of gingival bleeding.
Increasing vitamin K-rich foods (like green leafy vegetables) can antagonize warfarin's
effect, ibuprofen increases bleeding risk, and orange urine is a side effect of rifampin,
not warfarin.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates an adverse effect of this
medication?
A. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours
B. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 144/90 mm Hg
D. Peripheral edema in the lower extremities
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes excretion of potassium, sodium, and
water. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a common and
potentially dangerous adverse effect that can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. The other
options indicate fluid volume excess or hypertension, which are signs the medication is
not effective.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total
hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to
prevent venous thromboembolism?
A. Massage the client's lower extremities to promote circulation.
B. Place a pillow under the client's knees to maintain flexion.
C. Apply sequential compression devices to the lower extremities.
,D. Instruct the client to perform Valsalva maneuvers during repositioning.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Apply sequential compression devices to the lower
extremities.
Rationale: Sequential compression devices (SCDs) promote venous return by
mechanically compressing the deep veins of the legs, thereby reducing the risk of deep
vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism. Massaging the legs can dislodge a
clot, pillows under the knees can impede venous return, and Valsalva maneuvers
increase intrathoracic pressure and can cause cardiovascular strain.
Question 4: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse include about managing hypoglycemia?
A. Administer a dose of regular insulin.
B. Drink 4 ounces of fruit juice.
C. Eat a high-protein snack like cheese.
D. Rest for 15 minutes and recheck blood glucose.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Drink 4 ounces of fruit juice.
Rationale: The treatment for hypoglycemia (blood glucose <70 mg/dL) is the "Rule of
15": consume 15 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as 4 to 6 ounces of fruit juice or
regular soda, or 3 to 4 glucose tablets. Insulin would lower glucose further, protein is too
slow-acting, and resting without intervention is inappropriate.
Question 5: A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding through a
nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water.
B. Verify the placement of the tube by measuring the pH of gastric aspirate.
C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
D. Administer the prescribed feeding at room temperature.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify the placement of the tube by measuring the pH
of gastric aspirate.
Rationale: Before administering any enteral feeding, the nurse must first verify correct
tube placement to prevent accidental administration into the lungs. Measuring the pH of
gastric aspirate (which should be ≤4) is a reliable method. While the other steps are
correct, they are performed after placement is confirmed.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative
following a lobectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report
to the provider?
A. Heart rate of 92/min
B. Blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate of 14/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 87% on 2 L/min nasal cannula
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Oxygen saturation of 87% on 2 L/min nasal cannula
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 87% indicates significant hypoxemia, which is a
critical finding in a postoperative client who has had a lobectomy. This suggests
,inadequate gas exchange, possible atelectasis, or pneumonia and requires immediate
intervention. The other vital signs are within acceptable limits.
Question 7: A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new
prescription for albuterol metered-dose inhaler. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include?
A. Wait 5 minutes between puffs if two puffs are prescribed.
B. Inhale the medication and hold your breath for 10 seconds.
C. Take the medication immediately after eating.
D. Exhale completely before pressing down on the canister.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Inhale the medication and hold your breath for 10
seconds.
Rationale: After inhaling albuterol, the client should hold their breath for 10 seconds to
allow the medication to deposit in the airways and improve absorption. Clients should
wait 60 seconds between puffs, not 5. The medication is taken 30 minutes before meals
or 2 hours after, and the client should press the canister at the start of inspiration.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary
catheter. Which of the following actions is appropriate when performing
perineal care?
A. Clean the catheter from the meatus outward in a circular motion.
B. Hang the collection bag above the level of the client's bladder.
C. Apply powder to the perineal area to keep it dry.
D. Secure the catheter to the client's thigh with tape.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Clean the catheter from the meatus outward in a
circular motion.
Rationale: Perineal care for a client with an indwelling catheter involves cleaning the
area around the meatus and then moving outward in a circular motion to prevent
introducing bacteria from the perineum into the urethra. The collection bag should hang
below the bladder, powder is not recommended, and the catheter should be secured to
the thigh but with a catheter securement device, not regular tape.
Question 9: A nurse is calculating the intake and output for a client over 8
hours. The client ingested 240 mL of broth, 120 mL of coffee, and 100 mL of ice
chips. The client has an IV infusing at 50 mL/hr and received a blood
transfusion of 250 mL. Which of the following is the total intake?
A. 710 mL
B. 910 mL
C. 960 mL
D. 1010 mL
CORRECT ANSWER: D. 1010 mL
Rationale: Total intake includes all oral fluids, IV fluids, and blood products. Oral intake:
240 mL broth + 120 mL coffee + (100 mL ice chips counted as 50 mL because ice melts
to half its volume) = 410 mL. IV fluids: 50 mL/hr × 8 hr = 400 mL. Blood transfusion:
250 mL. Total = 410 + 400 + 250 = 1010 mL. It is essential to remember to calculate ice
chips as half their volume.
, Question 10: A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test to a
client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inject the solution intradermally to form a wheal.
B. Inject the solution into the deltoid muscle.
C. Use a 22-gauge needle for the injection.
D. Clean the site with an alcohol swab and massage the area.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Inject the solution intradermally to form a wheal.
Rationale: A tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test) is administered intradermally, usually on
the inner forearm, using a 27-gauge needle to inject 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative
(PPD) to form a small wheal. The injection should not be given in the muscle, a larger
gauge needle is not used, and the area should not be massaged or cleaned with alcohol
after injection.
Question 11: A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse
expect?
A. Barrel-shaped chest
B. Clubbing of the fingers
C. Hyperresonance on percussion
D. All of the above
CORRECT ANSWER: D. All of the above
Rationale: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by
hyperinflation of the lungs, leading to a barrel-shaped chest. Clubbing of the fingers
results from chronic hypoxemia. Hyperresonance on percussion is noted due to trapped
air in the lungs. Therefore, all findings are typical in clients with COPD.
Question 12: A nurse is reinforcing teaching about foot care to a client who has
diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a
need for further teaching?
A. "I will inspect my feet daily for any cuts or blisters."
B. "I will apply a thin layer of lotion between my toes."
C. "I will wear white cotton socks."
D. "I will trim my toenails straight across."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will apply a thin layer of lotion between my toes."
Rationale: Lotion between the toes creates a moist environment that can lead to skin
breakdown and fungal infections. Clients with diabetes should apply lotion to the tops
and bottoms of their feet but avoid putting it between the toes. Daily inspection, wearing
white socks to detect drainage, and trimming nails straight across are correct and safe
practices.
Question 13: A nurse is caring for a client with a surgical wound that is healing
by primary intention. Which of the following describes this type of wound
healing?
A. The wound is left open and closes by granulation tissue.
B. The wound edges are approximated and closed with sutures.
C. The wound is allowed to heal from the inside out.
Predictor Updated 2026 | 190+ Questions and
Answers | ATI Comprehensive Predictor
Comprehensive Study Guide, Practice Exam, Exam
Prep Test Bank, NCLEX-RN Readiness,
Fundamentals of Nursing, Medical-Surgical
Nursing, Pharmacology, Maternal-Newborn,
Pediatrics, Mental Health, Leadership, Community
Health, Next Generation NCLEX (NGN), Detailed
Rationales and Complete Revision Material
Question 1: A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new
prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client
indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A. "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
B. "I will take ibuprofen for my occasional headaches."
C. "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care."
D. "I will expect my urine to turn a bright orange color."
CORRECT ANSWER: C. I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush for oral care.
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Using a soft-
bristled toothbrush minimizes gum trauma and reduces the risk of gingival bleeding.
Increasing vitamin K-rich foods (like green leafy vegetables) can antagonize warfarin's
effect, ibuprofen increases bleeding risk, and orange urine is a side effect of rifampin,
not warfarin.
Question 2: A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure and is receiving
furosemide. Which of the following findings indicates an adverse effect of this
medication?
A. Weight gain of 1 kg in 24 hours
B. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Blood pressure of 144/90 mm Hg
D. Peripheral edema in the lower extremities
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes excretion of potassium, sodium, and
water. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a common and
potentially dangerous adverse effect that can lead to cardiac dysrhythmias. The other
options indicate fluid volume excess or hypertension, which are signs the medication is
not effective.
Question 3: A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a total
hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to
prevent venous thromboembolism?
A. Massage the client's lower extremities to promote circulation.
B. Place a pillow under the client's knees to maintain flexion.
C. Apply sequential compression devices to the lower extremities.
,D. Instruct the client to perform Valsalva maneuvers during repositioning.
CORRECT ANSWER: C. Apply sequential compression devices to the lower
extremities.
Rationale: Sequential compression devices (SCDs) promote venous return by
mechanically compressing the deep veins of the legs, thereby reducing the risk of deep
vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism. Massaging the legs can dislodge a
clot, pillows under the knees can impede venous return, and Valsalva maneuvers
increase intrathoracic pressure and can cause cardiovascular strain.
Question 4: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new
diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following instructions
should the nurse include about managing hypoglycemia?
A. Administer a dose of regular insulin.
B. Drink 4 ounces of fruit juice.
C. Eat a high-protein snack like cheese.
D. Rest for 15 minutes and recheck blood glucose.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Drink 4 ounces of fruit juice.
Rationale: The treatment for hypoglycemia (blood glucose <70 mg/dL) is the "Rule of
15": consume 15 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as 4 to 6 ounces of fruit juice or
regular soda, or 3 to 4 glucose tablets. Insulin would lower glucose further, protein is too
slow-acting, and resting without intervention is inappropriate.
Question 5: A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding through a
nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water.
B. Verify the placement of the tube by measuring the pH of gastric aspirate.
C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
D. Administer the prescribed feeding at room temperature.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Verify the placement of the tube by measuring the pH
of gastric aspirate.
Rationale: Before administering any enteral feeding, the nurse must first verify correct
tube placement to prevent accidental administration into the lungs. Measuring the pH of
gastric aspirate (which should be ≤4) is a reliable method. While the other steps are
correct, they are performed after placement is confirmed.
Question 6: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative
following a lobectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report
to the provider?
A. Heart rate of 92/min
B. Blood pressure of 138/86 mm Hg
C. Respiratory rate of 14/min
D. Oxygen saturation of 87% on 2 L/min nasal cannula
CORRECT ANSWER: D. Oxygen saturation of 87% on 2 L/min nasal cannula
Rationale: An oxygen saturation of 87% indicates significant hypoxemia, which is a
critical finding in a postoperative client who has had a lobectomy. This suggests
,inadequate gas exchange, possible atelectasis, or pneumonia and requires immediate
intervention. The other vital signs are within acceptable limits.
Question 7: A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new
prescription for albuterol metered-dose inhaler. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include?
A. Wait 5 minutes between puffs if two puffs are prescribed.
B. Inhale the medication and hold your breath for 10 seconds.
C. Take the medication immediately after eating.
D. Exhale completely before pressing down on the canister.
CORRECT ANSWER: B. Inhale the medication and hold your breath for 10
seconds.
Rationale: After inhaling albuterol, the client should hold their breath for 10 seconds to
allow the medication to deposit in the airways and improve absorption. Clients should
wait 60 seconds between puffs, not 5. The medication is taken 30 minutes before meals
or 2 hours after, and the client should press the canister at the start of inspiration.
Question 8: A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary
catheter. Which of the following actions is appropriate when performing
perineal care?
A. Clean the catheter from the meatus outward in a circular motion.
B. Hang the collection bag above the level of the client's bladder.
C. Apply powder to the perineal area to keep it dry.
D. Secure the catheter to the client's thigh with tape.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Clean the catheter from the meatus outward in a
circular motion.
Rationale: Perineal care for a client with an indwelling catheter involves cleaning the
area around the meatus and then moving outward in a circular motion to prevent
introducing bacteria from the perineum into the urethra. The collection bag should hang
below the bladder, powder is not recommended, and the catheter should be secured to
the thigh but with a catheter securement device, not regular tape.
Question 9: A nurse is calculating the intake and output for a client over 8
hours. The client ingested 240 mL of broth, 120 mL of coffee, and 100 mL of ice
chips. The client has an IV infusing at 50 mL/hr and received a blood
transfusion of 250 mL. Which of the following is the total intake?
A. 710 mL
B. 910 mL
C. 960 mL
D. 1010 mL
CORRECT ANSWER: D. 1010 mL
Rationale: Total intake includes all oral fluids, IV fluids, and blood products. Oral intake:
240 mL broth + 120 mL coffee + (100 mL ice chips counted as 50 mL because ice melts
to half its volume) = 410 mL. IV fluids: 50 mL/hr × 8 hr = 400 mL. Blood transfusion:
250 mL. Total = 410 + 400 + 250 = 1010 mL. It is essential to remember to calculate ice
chips as half their volume.
, Question 10: A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test to a
client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inject the solution intradermally to form a wheal.
B. Inject the solution into the deltoid muscle.
C. Use a 22-gauge needle for the injection.
D. Clean the site with an alcohol swab and massage the area.
CORRECT ANSWER: A. Inject the solution intradermally to form a wheal.
Rationale: A tuberculin skin test (Mantoux test) is administered intradermally, usually on
the inner forearm, using a 27-gauge needle to inject 0.1 mL of purified protein derivative
(PPD) to form a small wheal. The injection should not be given in the muscle, a larger
gauge needle is not used, and the area should not be massaged or cleaned with alcohol
after injection.
Question 11: A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse
expect?
A. Barrel-shaped chest
B. Clubbing of the fingers
C. Hyperresonance on percussion
D. All of the above
CORRECT ANSWER: D. All of the above
Rationale: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by
hyperinflation of the lungs, leading to a barrel-shaped chest. Clubbing of the fingers
results from chronic hypoxemia. Hyperresonance on percussion is noted due to trapped
air in the lungs. Therefore, all findings are typical in clients with COPD.
Question 12: A nurse is reinforcing teaching about foot care to a client who has
diabetes mellitus. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a
need for further teaching?
A. "I will inspect my feet daily for any cuts or blisters."
B. "I will apply a thin layer of lotion between my toes."
C. "I will wear white cotton socks."
D. "I will trim my toenails straight across."
CORRECT ANSWER: B. "I will apply a thin layer of lotion between my toes."
Rationale: Lotion between the toes creates a moist environment that can lead to skin
breakdown and fungal infections. Clients with diabetes should apply lotion to the tops
and bottoms of their feet but avoid putting it between the toes. Daily inspection, wearing
white socks to detect drainage, and trimming nails straight across are correct and safe
practices.
Question 13: A nurse is caring for a client with a surgical wound that is healing
by primary intention. Which of the following describes this type of wound
healing?
A. The wound is left open and closes by granulation tissue.
B. The wound edges are approximated and closed with sutures.
C. The wound is allowed to heal from the inside out.
