NSG 322 Behavioral Health Nursing Exam 3 | 2026/2027
Edition | 100 Verified Questions
NSG 322 Behavioral Health Nursing Exam 3 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+.
100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document for NSG 322 Behavioral Health Nursing Exam 3
features 100 verified questions with detailed rationales. Designed to ensure a thorough understanding
of key behavioral health concepts, this resource covers therapeutic communication, psychiatric
disorders, and nursing interventions. Each question is accompanied by evidence-based explanations to
reinforce learning and promote critical thinking. Ideal for students seeking a pass guarantee and A+
grading.
Key Features:
Therapeutic Communication and Patient Interaction
Major Psychiatric Disorders (Schizophrenia, Bipolar, Depression, Anxiety)
Psychopharmacology and Medication Management
Crisis Intervention and Suicide Prevention
Legal and Ethical Issues in Behavioral Health
Nursing Process and Care Planning
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026/2027 academic year guidelines
- Incorporated latest DSM-5-TR criteria for psychiatric diagnoses
- Revised rationales to include current evidence-based practice
- Added new questions on emerging topics in behavioral health
- Enhanced distractor explanations to clarify common misconceptions
Abstract:
This document serves as a definitive study resource for NSG 322 Behavioral Health Nursing Exam 3, containing
100 meticulously verified questions that mirror the actual exam format. Each question is paired with a detailed
rationale that explains the correct answer and addresses common errors, fostering deep comprehension of
behavioral health nursing principles. The content spans therapeutic communication, psychiatric disorders across
the lifespan, psychopharmacology, crisis intervention, and legal-ethical considerations. By integrating the latest
DSM-5-TR criteria and evidence-based interventions, this guide ensures students are prepared for contemporary
clinical challenges. The structured approach, with questions organized by content area and weighted by exam
significance, allows for targeted study. This resource is designed to build confidence and competence, ultimately
supporting a pass guarantee and A+ performance.
Keywords:
Behavioral Health Nursing, NSG 322, Exam 3, Psychiatric Disorders, Therapeutic Communication,
Psychopharmacology, Crisis Intervention, Nursing Interventions
Answer Format:
Each question is followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale explaining why it is correct. Distractor
answers are also analyzed to clarify why they are incorrect, helping students avoid common mistakes. Rationales
include references to evidence-based practice and DSM-5-TR criteria where applicable.
Compliance Checklist:
All questions verified for accuracy and relevance to NSG 322 Exam 3
Rationales aligned with current behavioral health nursing standards
Page 1
, Content updated per 2026/2027 academic year requirements
Includes DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria and treatment guidelines
Pass guarantee supported by comprehensive coverage and explanations
Suitable for A+ graded exam preparation
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Therapeutic Communication and 1-20 Active listening, empathy, boundaries, 20%
Relationship Building verbal/nonverbal communication
Psychiatric Disorders and 21-45 Schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, major 25%
Symptomatology depression, anxiety disorders, PTSD
Psychopharmacology and 46-65 Antipsychotics, antidepressants, mood 20%
Somatic Therapies stabilizers, anxiolytics, ECT
Crisis Intervention and Suicide 66-80 Crisis assessment, safety planning, suicide 15%
Prevention risk factors, de-escalation
Legal and Ethical Issues 81-90 Informed consent, confidentiality, 10%
involuntary commitment, patient rights
Nursing Process and Care 91-100 Assessment, diagnosis, outcomes, 10%
Planning interventions, evaluation
Page 2
,Q1. A patient with a history of bipolar I disorder presents with pressured speech, grandiosity, and
decreased need for sleep. Current medications include lithium 900 mg/day and lamotrigine 200
mg/day. The patient's lithium level is 0.4 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increase lithium dose to achieve therapeutic level
B. Add a second mood stabilizer such as valproate
C. Discontinue lamotrigine due to risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D. Administer a short course of benzodiazepine for acute agitation
Correct Answer: A. Increase lithium dose to achieve therapeutic level
Rationale: The patient is experiencing acute mania with subtherapeutic lithium level (0.4 mEq/L;
therapeutic range 0.6-1.2 mEq/L). Increasing lithium dose is first-line to achieve therapeutic level.
Valproate may be considered if lithium fails, but not before optimizing lithium. Lamotrigine is more
effective for depression maintenance, not acute mania, and discontinuation is not indicated.
Benzodiazepines may be used adjunctively but do not address the underlying mood episode.
Why Wrong:
B - Adding valproate is not first-line before optimizing lithium monotherapy.
C - Lamotrigine is not contraindicated in acute mania, though it is less effective; discontinuation is
not warranted.
D - Benzodiazepines provide symptomatic relief but do not treat the underlying manic episode.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 30
Q2. A nurse is assessing a patient who recently started fluoxetine 20 mg daily for major depressive
disorder. The patient reports feeling more energetic but still has a depressed mood and expresses
passive suicidal ideation. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Discontinue fluoxetine immediately due to activation syndrome
B. Increase fluoxetine dose to 40 mg to improve efficacy
C. Initiate suicide precautions and monitor for worsening of symptoms
D. Switch to a different SSRI to avoid side effects
Correct Answer: C. Initiate suicide precautions and monitor for worsening of symptoms
Rationale: Fluoxetine can cause activation syndrome, increasing energy before mood improves, which
may heighten suicide risk. The presence of suicidal ideation necessitates suicide precautions and close
monitoring. Discontinuation is not immediately indicated; the medication may need adjustment but not
abrupt stop. Dose increase may worsen activation. Switching is not first-line without evidence of adverse
effects.
Why Wrong:
A - Abrupt discontinuation can cause withdrawal; activation syndrome is managed with monitoring
and dose adjustment, not immediate stop.
B - Increasing dose may exacerbate activation and does not address suicidal ideation.
D - There is no indication of intolerance; switching is premature.
Reference: Stahl, S.M. (2025). Stahl's Essential Psychopharmacology, 5th Ed., Ch. 6
Page 3
, Q3. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been nonadherent to oral antipsychotics due to
anosognosia. Which long-acting injectable antipsychotic is most appropriate to initiate in this
scenario?
A. Aripiprazole lauroxil
B. Haloperidol decanoate
C. Clozapine
D. Olanzapine pamoate
Correct Answer: A. Aripiprazole lauroxil
Rationale: Aripiprazole lauroxil is a second-generation LAI with favorable side effect profile and is
effective for patients with insight deficits. Haloperidol decanoate is first-generation with higher
extrapyramidal risk. Clozapine is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia, not first-line for
nonadherence. Olanzapine pamoate carries risk of post-injection delirium/sedation syndrome and
requires monitoring.
Why Wrong:
B - Haloperidol decanoate has higher EPS risk and is less preferred for first-line LAI therapy.
C - Clozapine is not indicated for nonadherence alone; it requires blood monitoring and is reserved
for refractory cases.
D - Olanzapine pamoate has a black box warning for post-injection syndrome, making it less safe for
routine use.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 31
Q4. A patient with opioid use disorder is started on buprenorphine/naloxone. The nurse educates
about precipitated withdrawal. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?
A. I should not take this medication within 12-24 hours after my last opioid use.
B. Naloxone will block the effects of buprenorphine if I relapse.
C. This medication works by fully activating mu-opioid receptors.
D. I can take this medication immediately after using heroin.
Correct Answer: A. I should not take this medication within 12-24 hours after my last opioid use.
Rationale: Precipitated withdrawal occurs if buprenorphine is administered while full agonists are still
bound; a 12-24 hour wait (or until moderate withdrawal) is required. Naloxone is added to deter injection
abuse, not to block effects when taken sublingually. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist, not full agonist.
Taking immediately after heroin use will precipitate withdrawal.
Why Wrong:
B - Naloxone is poorly absorbed sublingually and does not block buprenorphine's effects when taken
as directed.
C - Buprenorphine is a partial mu-opioid receptor agonist, not a full agonist.
D - Immediate administration after opioid use causes precipitated withdrawal.
Reference: SAMHSA (2025). TIP 63: Medications for Opioid Use Disorder
Page 4
Edition | 100 Verified Questions
NSG 322 Behavioral Health Nursing Exam 3 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+.
100% Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document for NSG 322 Behavioral Health Nursing Exam 3
features 100 verified questions with detailed rationales. Designed to ensure a thorough understanding
of key behavioral health concepts, this resource covers therapeutic communication, psychiatric
disorders, and nursing interventions. Each question is accompanied by evidence-based explanations to
reinforce learning and promote critical thinking. Ideal for students seeking a pass guarantee and A+
grading.
Key Features:
Therapeutic Communication and Patient Interaction
Major Psychiatric Disorders (Schizophrenia, Bipolar, Depression, Anxiety)
Psychopharmacology and Medication Management
Crisis Intervention and Suicide Prevention
Legal and Ethical Issues in Behavioral Health
Nursing Process and Care Planning
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026/2027 academic year guidelines
- Incorporated latest DSM-5-TR criteria for psychiatric diagnoses
- Revised rationales to include current evidence-based practice
- Added new questions on emerging topics in behavioral health
- Enhanced distractor explanations to clarify common misconceptions
Abstract:
This document serves as a definitive study resource for NSG 322 Behavioral Health Nursing Exam 3, containing
100 meticulously verified questions that mirror the actual exam format. Each question is paired with a detailed
rationale that explains the correct answer and addresses common errors, fostering deep comprehension of
behavioral health nursing principles. The content spans therapeutic communication, psychiatric disorders across
the lifespan, psychopharmacology, crisis intervention, and legal-ethical considerations. By integrating the latest
DSM-5-TR criteria and evidence-based interventions, this guide ensures students are prepared for contemporary
clinical challenges. The structured approach, with questions organized by content area and weighted by exam
significance, allows for targeted study. This resource is designed to build confidence and competence, ultimately
supporting a pass guarantee and A+ performance.
Keywords:
Behavioral Health Nursing, NSG 322, Exam 3, Psychiatric Disorders, Therapeutic Communication,
Psychopharmacology, Crisis Intervention, Nursing Interventions
Answer Format:
Each question is followed by the correct answer and a detailed rationale explaining why it is correct. Distractor
answers are also analyzed to clarify why they are incorrect, helping students avoid common mistakes. Rationales
include references to evidence-based practice and DSM-5-TR criteria where applicable.
Compliance Checklist:
All questions verified for accuracy and relevance to NSG 322 Exam 3
Rationales aligned with current behavioral health nursing standards
Page 1
, Content updated per 2026/2027 academic year requirements
Includes DSM-5-TR diagnostic criteria and treatment guidelines
Pass guarantee supported by comprehensive coverage and explanations
Suitable for A+ graded exam preparation
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Therapeutic Communication and 1-20 Active listening, empathy, boundaries, 20%
Relationship Building verbal/nonverbal communication
Psychiatric Disorders and 21-45 Schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, major 25%
Symptomatology depression, anxiety disorders, PTSD
Psychopharmacology and 46-65 Antipsychotics, antidepressants, mood 20%
Somatic Therapies stabilizers, anxiolytics, ECT
Crisis Intervention and Suicide 66-80 Crisis assessment, safety planning, suicide 15%
Prevention risk factors, de-escalation
Legal and Ethical Issues 81-90 Informed consent, confidentiality, 10%
involuntary commitment, patient rights
Nursing Process and Care 91-100 Assessment, diagnosis, outcomes, 10%
Planning interventions, evaluation
Page 2
,Q1. A patient with a history of bipolar I disorder presents with pressured speech, grandiosity, and
decreased need for sleep. Current medications include lithium 900 mg/day and lamotrigine 200
mg/day. The patient's lithium level is 0.4 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?
A. Increase lithium dose to achieve therapeutic level
B. Add a second mood stabilizer such as valproate
C. Discontinue lamotrigine due to risk of Stevens-Johnson syndrome
D. Administer a short course of benzodiazepine for acute agitation
Correct Answer: A. Increase lithium dose to achieve therapeutic level
Rationale: The patient is experiencing acute mania with subtherapeutic lithium level (0.4 mEq/L;
therapeutic range 0.6-1.2 mEq/L). Increasing lithium dose is first-line to achieve therapeutic level.
Valproate may be considered if lithium fails, but not before optimizing lithium. Lamotrigine is more
effective for depression maintenance, not acute mania, and discontinuation is not indicated.
Benzodiazepines may be used adjunctively but do not address the underlying mood episode.
Why Wrong:
B - Adding valproate is not first-line before optimizing lithium monotherapy.
C - Lamotrigine is not contraindicated in acute mania, though it is less effective; discontinuation is
not warranted.
D - Benzodiazepines provide symptomatic relief but do not treat the underlying manic episode.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 30
Q2. A nurse is assessing a patient who recently started fluoxetine 20 mg daily for major depressive
disorder. The patient reports feeling more energetic but still has a depressed mood and expresses
passive suicidal ideation. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A. Discontinue fluoxetine immediately due to activation syndrome
B. Increase fluoxetine dose to 40 mg to improve efficacy
C. Initiate suicide precautions and monitor for worsening of symptoms
D. Switch to a different SSRI to avoid side effects
Correct Answer: C. Initiate suicide precautions and monitor for worsening of symptoms
Rationale: Fluoxetine can cause activation syndrome, increasing energy before mood improves, which
may heighten suicide risk. The presence of suicidal ideation necessitates suicide precautions and close
monitoring. Discontinuation is not immediately indicated; the medication may need adjustment but not
abrupt stop. Dose increase may worsen activation. Switching is not first-line without evidence of adverse
effects.
Why Wrong:
A - Abrupt discontinuation can cause withdrawal; activation syndrome is managed with monitoring
and dose adjustment, not immediate stop.
B - Increasing dose may exacerbate activation and does not address suicidal ideation.
D - There is no indication of intolerance; switching is premature.
Reference: Stahl, S.M. (2025). Stahl's Essential Psychopharmacology, 5th Ed., Ch. 6
Page 3
, Q3. A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia has been nonadherent to oral antipsychotics due to
anosognosia. Which long-acting injectable antipsychotic is most appropriate to initiate in this
scenario?
A. Aripiprazole lauroxil
B. Haloperidol decanoate
C. Clozapine
D. Olanzapine pamoate
Correct Answer: A. Aripiprazole lauroxil
Rationale: Aripiprazole lauroxil is a second-generation LAI with favorable side effect profile and is
effective for patients with insight deficits. Haloperidol decanoate is first-generation with higher
extrapyramidal risk. Clozapine is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia, not first-line for
nonadherence. Olanzapine pamoate carries risk of post-injection delirium/sedation syndrome and
requires monitoring.
Why Wrong:
B - Haloperidol decanoate has higher EPS risk and is less preferred for first-line LAI therapy.
C - Clozapine is not indicated for nonadherence alone; it requires blood monitoring and is reserved
for refractory cases.
D - Olanzapine pamoate has a black box warning for post-injection syndrome, making it less safe for
routine use.
Reference: Lehne, R.A. (2026). Pharmacology for Nursing Care, 12th Ed., Ch. 31
Q4. A patient with opioid use disorder is started on buprenorphine/naloxone. The nurse educates
about precipitated withdrawal. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?
A. I should not take this medication within 12-24 hours after my last opioid use.
B. Naloxone will block the effects of buprenorphine if I relapse.
C. This medication works by fully activating mu-opioid receptors.
D. I can take this medication immediately after using heroin.
Correct Answer: A. I should not take this medication within 12-24 hours after my last opioid use.
Rationale: Precipitated withdrawal occurs if buprenorphine is administered while full agonists are still
bound; a 12-24 hour wait (or until moderate withdrawal) is required. Naloxone is added to deter injection
abuse, not to block effects when taken sublingually. Buprenorphine is a partial agonist, not full agonist.
Taking immediately after heroin use will precipitate withdrawal.
Why Wrong:
B - Naloxone is poorly absorbed sublingually and does not block buprenorphine's effects when taken
as directed.
C - Buprenorphine is a partial mu-opioid receptor agonist, not a full agonist.
D - Immediate administration after opioid use causes precipitated withdrawal.
Reference: SAMHSA (2025). TIP 63: Medications for Opioid Use Disorder
Page 4
