Actual Questions with Revised Answers,
100% Verified - Nightingale College
Question 1. A client with a history of anaphylactic reaction to penicillin receives a prescription
for cephalexin 500 mg by mouth twice daily. Which action should the nurse take?
• A) Give with prescribed antihistamine
• B) Administer the medication as prescribed
• C) Contact the healthcare provider
• D) Monitor the client for a rash or hives
Answer: C
Rationale: Given the serious penicillin allergy, prior authorization from the healthcare provider
is essential before administration due to the risk of cross-sensitivity and anaphylaxis .
Question 2. After initiating piperacillin-tazobactam IV, a client reports a scratchy throat five
minutes into the infusion. Which finding is a reason to stop the infusion immediately?
• A) Scratchy throat
• B) Bradycardia
• C) Hypertension
• D) Pupillary constriction
Answer: A
Rationale: A scratchy throat is an early sign of anaphylaxis and potential airway compromise,
requiring immediate discontinuation of the infusion .
Question 3. The nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client taking ciprofloxacin
hydrochloride tablets for suspected anthrax exposure. Which instructions should be included?
(Select all that apply.)
• A) Crush and mix the tablets with pudding if you have trouble swallowing
• B) Report any tendon pain or swelling to the healthcare provider immediately
, • C) Limit exposure to sunlight and avoid tanning beds
• D) Increase fluid intake while taking the medication
• E) Use NSAIDs to relieve mild joint aches caused by the medication
Answer: B, C, D
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin carries risks of tendon rupture (report tendon pain immediately),
photosensitivity (avoid sun exposure), and crystalluria (increase fluids). NSAIDs may worsen
tendon risk .
Question 4. A client receives a prescription for ciprofloxacin 400 mg IV every 12 hours, infused
over one hour. The IV bag contains 400 mg in 200 mL D5W. How many mL/hr should the nurse
program the infusion pump to deliver?
• A) 50 mL/hr
• B) 100 mL/hr
• C) 150 mL/hr
• D) 200 mL/hr
Answer: D
Rationale: The prescription specifies that 400 mg in 200 mL should infuse over 1 hour. The IV
pump should be set to deliver the entire 200 mL over 1 hour: 200 mL/hour .
Question 5. A client is receiving vancomycin IV. Which action is most important for the nurse to
implement?
• A) Obtain white blood count daily
• B) Assess physiological response to antibiotic
• C) Ensure vancomycin peak and trough levels are obtained
• D) Report infection for Medicare reimbursement
Answer: C
Rationale: Vancomycin requires serum peak and trough level monitoring to maintain
therapeutic efficacy and reduce the risk of toxicity, particularly nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity .
Question 6. Which instruction should the nurse give to a female client who received a
prescription for oral metronidazole (Flagyl) for treatment of trichomonas vaginalis? (Select all
that apply.)
• A) Increase fluid intake, especially cranberry juice
, • B) Do not abruptly discontinue the medication; taper use
• C) Check blood pressure daily to detect hypertension
• D) Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication
• E) Use condoms until treatment is completed
• F) Ensure that all sexual partners are treated at the same time
Answer: A, D, E, F
Rationale: Metronidazole causes a severe disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol. Partners should
be treated simultaneously to prevent reinfection. Condoms should be used until treatment is
completed .
Question 7. For a client scheduled to receive asparaginase (Elspar), which documented history
finding should prompt the nurse to consult the provider before administration?
• A) Pancreatitis
• B) Diabetes mellitus
• C) Myocardial infarction
• D) COPD
Answer: A
Rationale: Asparaginase is associated with a high risk of pancreatitis, and prior history increases
the risk for severe/life-threatening complications if administered again .
Question 8. A client with a UTI is prescribed trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor?
• A) Serum creatinine
• B) Serum potassium
• C) Serum sodium
• D) Serum calcium
Answer: A
Rationale: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can cause nephrotoxicity and hyperkalemia.
Monitoring renal function (creatinine) is essential.
Question 9. A client is prescribed doxycycline for Lyme disease. Which instruction should the
nurse include?