FISDAP CARDIOLOGY REVIEW (PARAMEDIC)
EXAM WITH CORRECT ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECTLY WELL DEFINED ANSWERS
LATEST ALREADY GRADED A+ 2026
Save
Terms in this set (552)
You respond to a residence for a Digoxin.
68-year-old male with nausea,
vomiting, and blurred vision. As you This patient has classic signs of digitalis toxicity.
are assessing him, he tells you that Digoxin is commonly prescribed to patients with
he has congestive heart failure and congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation (A-
atrial fibrillation, and takes Fib) or atrial flutter (A-Flutter). Its positive
numerous medications. The cardiac inotropic effects increase cardiac contractility
monitor reveals atrial fibrillation and maintain cardiac output, while its negative
with a ventricular rate of 50 chronotropic effects control the ventricular rate
beats/min. Which of the following of the A-Fib or A-Flutter. Digitalis preparations (ie,
medications is MOST likely Lanoxin, Digoxin) have a narrow therapeutic
responsible for this patient's clinical index—that is, there is a fine line between a
presentation? therapeutic and toxic dose. You should suspect
digitalis toxicity in any patient who takes Digoxin
or Lanoxin and presents with complaints such as
nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia, or
blurred/yellow vision. Additionally, virtually any
cardiac dysrhythmia can be caused by the toxic
effects of digitalis. Treatment involves the
administration of Digibind, which is given at the
hospital.
,Which of the following is an Subdural hematoma 3 years ago.
absolute contraindication for
fibrinolytic therapy? According to current emergency cardiac care
(ECC) guidelines, absolute contraindications for
fibrinolytic therapy include ANY prior intracranial
hemorrhage (ie, subdural, epidural, intracerebral
hematoma); known structural cerebrovascular
lesion (ie, arteriovenous malformation); known
malignant intracranial tumor (primary or
metastatic); ischemic stroke within the past 3
months, EXCEPT for acute ischemic stroke within
the past 3 hours; suspected aortic dissection;
active bleeding or bleeding disorders (except
menses); and significant closed head trauma or
facial trauma within the past 3 months. Relative
contraindications (eg, the physician may deem
fibrinolytic therapy appropriate under certain
circumstances) include, a history of chronic,
severe, poorly-controlled hypertension; severe
uncontrolled hypertension on presentation (SBP
> 180 mm Hg or DBP > 110 mm Hg); ischemic
stroke greater than 3 months ago; dementia;
traumatic or prolonged (> 10 minutes) CPR or
major surgery within the past 3 weeks; recent
(within 2 to 4 weeks) internal bleeding;
noncompressible vascular punctures; pregnancy;
prior exposure (> 5 days ago) or prior allergic
reaction to streptokinase or anistreplase; active
peptic ulcer; and current use of anticoagulants
(ie, Coumadin).
,A middle-aged man presents with Administer up to 325 mg of aspirin.
chest discomfort, shortness of
breath, and nausea. You give him Since oxygen has already been administered to
supplemental oxygen and continue this patient and your partner is attaching the ECG
your assessment. As your partner is leads, you should administer aspirin (160 to 325
attaching the ECG leads, you mg, non-enteric-coated). Early administration of
should: aspirin has clearly been shown to reduce
mortality and morbidity in patients experiencing
an acute coronary syndrome (ACS). After
establishing vascular access, you should assess
his vital signs and then administer 0.4 mg of
nitroglycerin (up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart),
provided that his systolic BP is greater than 90
mm Hg. If 3 doses of nitroglycerin fail to
completely relieve his chest discomfort, consider
administering 2 to 4 mg of morphine IV, provided
that his systolic BP remains above 90 mm Hg.
Which of the following ECG lead To assess lead II, place the negative lead on the
configurations is correct? right arm and the positive lead on the left leg.
According to the Einthoven triangle, lead I is
assessed by placing the negative (white) lead on
the right arm and the positive (red) lead on the
left arm. Lead II is assessed by placing the
negative lead on the right arm and the positive
lead on the left leg. Lead III is assessed by
placing the negative lead on the left arm and the
positive lead on the left leg.
, A 61-year-old male presents with Supplemental oxygen, vascular access, up to
chest pressure that woke him up three 0.4 mg doses of nitroglycerin, and 2 to 4
from his nap 30 minutes ago. He is mg of morphine sulfate if his systolic BP is greater
diaphoretic, anxious, and rates his than 90 mm Hg and he is still experiencing pain.
pain as an an 8 over 10. His past
medical history is significant for The patient is experiencing an acute coronary
hypertension, type II diabetes, and syndrome (ACS). His 12-lead ECG indicates
coronary stent placement 2 months anteroseptal injury with lateral extension (ST
ago. He takes lisinopril, Plavix, and elevation in leads V1 through V5). Appropriate
Glucophage, and is wearing a treatment includes oxygen (maintain an SpO2 of
medical alert bracelet stating greater than 94%), vascular access, up to three
"allergic to salicylates." His blood 0.4 mg doses of nitroglycerin (NTG), and 2 to 4
pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is mg of morphine if NTG fails to relieve his pain
110 beats/min, and respirations are and his systolic BP is above 90 mm Hg. Some
22 breaths/min. The 12-lead ECG EMS systems may use fentanyl (Sublimaze) for
shows sinus tachycardia with 3-mm analgesia. Aspirin, a salicylate, is also given to
ST segment elevation in leads V1 patients with ACS; however, this patient is allergic
through V5. Which of the following to salicylates. Obtain a right-sided 12-lead ECG in
treatment modalities is MOST patients with signs of inferior wall injury (ST
appropriate for this patient? elevation in leads II, III, aVF). Inferior wall
infarctions may involve the right ventricle; a right-
sided 12-lead ECG will help confirm this. Apply
the multi-pads to the patient, not because he is at
risk for bradycardia (more common with inferior
infarctions), but because he is at risk for cardiac
arrest due to V-Fib or pulseless V-Tach.
EXAM WITH CORRECT ACTUAL QUESTIONS
AND CORRECTLY WELL DEFINED ANSWERS
LATEST ALREADY GRADED A+ 2026
Save
Terms in this set (552)
You respond to a residence for a Digoxin.
68-year-old male with nausea,
vomiting, and blurred vision. As you This patient has classic signs of digitalis toxicity.
are assessing him, he tells you that Digoxin is commonly prescribed to patients with
he has congestive heart failure and congestive heart failure and atrial fibrillation (A-
atrial fibrillation, and takes Fib) or atrial flutter (A-Flutter). Its positive
numerous medications. The cardiac inotropic effects increase cardiac contractility
monitor reveals atrial fibrillation and maintain cardiac output, while its negative
with a ventricular rate of 50 chronotropic effects control the ventricular rate
beats/min. Which of the following of the A-Fib or A-Flutter. Digitalis preparations (ie,
medications is MOST likely Lanoxin, Digoxin) have a narrow therapeutic
responsible for this patient's clinical index—that is, there is a fine line between a
presentation? therapeutic and toxic dose. You should suspect
digitalis toxicity in any patient who takes Digoxin
or Lanoxin and presents with complaints such as
nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia, or
blurred/yellow vision. Additionally, virtually any
cardiac dysrhythmia can be caused by the toxic
effects of digitalis. Treatment involves the
administration of Digibind, which is given at the
hospital.
,Which of the following is an Subdural hematoma 3 years ago.
absolute contraindication for
fibrinolytic therapy? According to current emergency cardiac care
(ECC) guidelines, absolute contraindications for
fibrinolytic therapy include ANY prior intracranial
hemorrhage (ie, subdural, epidural, intracerebral
hematoma); known structural cerebrovascular
lesion (ie, arteriovenous malformation); known
malignant intracranial tumor (primary or
metastatic); ischemic stroke within the past 3
months, EXCEPT for acute ischemic stroke within
the past 3 hours; suspected aortic dissection;
active bleeding or bleeding disorders (except
menses); and significant closed head trauma or
facial trauma within the past 3 months. Relative
contraindications (eg, the physician may deem
fibrinolytic therapy appropriate under certain
circumstances) include, a history of chronic,
severe, poorly-controlled hypertension; severe
uncontrolled hypertension on presentation (SBP
> 180 mm Hg or DBP > 110 mm Hg); ischemic
stroke greater than 3 months ago; dementia;
traumatic or prolonged (> 10 minutes) CPR or
major surgery within the past 3 weeks; recent
(within 2 to 4 weeks) internal bleeding;
noncompressible vascular punctures; pregnancy;
prior exposure (> 5 days ago) or prior allergic
reaction to streptokinase or anistreplase; active
peptic ulcer; and current use of anticoagulants
(ie, Coumadin).
,A middle-aged man presents with Administer up to 325 mg of aspirin.
chest discomfort, shortness of
breath, and nausea. You give him Since oxygen has already been administered to
supplemental oxygen and continue this patient and your partner is attaching the ECG
your assessment. As your partner is leads, you should administer aspirin (160 to 325
attaching the ECG leads, you mg, non-enteric-coated). Early administration of
should: aspirin has clearly been shown to reduce
mortality and morbidity in patients experiencing
an acute coronary syndrome (ACS). After
establishing vascular access, you should assess
his vital signs and then administer 0.4 mg of
nitroglycerin (up to 3 doses, 5 minutes apart),
provided that his systolic BP is greater than 90
mm Hg. If 3 doses of nitroglycerin fail to
completely relieve his chest discomfort, consider
administering 2 to 4 mg of morphine IV, provided
that his systolic BP remains above 90 mm Hg.
Which of the following ECG lead To assess lead II, place the negative lead on the
configurations is correct? right arm and the positive lead on the left leg.
According to the Einthoven triangle, lead I is
assessed by placing the negative (white) lead on
the right arm and the positive (red) lead on the
left arm. Lead II is assessed by placing the
negative lead on the right arm and the positive
lead on the left leg. Lead III is assessed by
placing the negative lead on the left arm and the
positive lead on the left leg.
, A 61-year-old male presents with Supplemental oxygen, vascular access, up to
chest pressure that woke him up three 0.4 mg doses of nitroglycerin, and 2 to 4
from his nap 30 minutes ago. He is mg of morphine sulfate if his systolic BP is greater
diaphoretic, anxious, and rates his than 90 mm Hg and he is still experiencing pain.
pain as an an 8 over 10. His past
medical history is significant for The patient is experiencing an acute coronary
hypertension, type II diabetes, and syndrome (ACS). His 12-lead ECG indicates
coronary stent placement 2 months anteroseptal injury with lateral extension (ST
ago. He takes lisinopril, Plavix, and elevation in leads V1 through V5). Appropriate
Glucophage, and is wearing a treatment includes oxygen (maintain an SpO2 of
medical alert bracelet stating greater than 94%), vascular access, up to three
"allergic to salicylates." His blood 0.4 mg doses of nitroglycerin (NTG), and 2 to 4
pressure is 160/100 mm Hg, pulse is mg of morphine if NTG fails to relieve his pain
110 beats/min, and respirations are and his systolic BP is above 90 mm Hg. Some
22 breaths/min. The 12-lead ECG EMS systems may use fentanyl (Sublimaze) for
shows sinus tachycardia with 3-mm analgesia. Aspirin, a salicylate, is also given to
ST segment elevation in leads V1 patients with ACS; however, this patient is allergic
through V5. Which of the following to salicylates. Obtain a right-sided 12-lead ECG in
treatment modalities is MOST patients with signs of inferior wall injury (ST
appropriate for this patient? elevation in leads II, III, aVF). Inferior wall
infarctions may involve the right ventricle; a right-
sided 12-lead ECG will help confirm this. Apply
the multi-pads to the patient, not because he is at
risk for bradycardia (more common with inferior
infarctions), but because he is at risk for cardiac
arrest due to V-Fib or pulseless V-Tach.
