ATI REMEDIATION TESTS PRACTICE TEST EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |LATEST EXAM UPDATE 2026/2027..
Core Domains
• Fundamentals of Nursing Care
• Pharmacology and Safe Medication Administration
• Medical-Surgical Nursing and Pathophysiology
• Maternal-Newborn and Pediatric Nursing
• Mental Health Nursing Care
• Nursing Leadership, Management, and Jurisprudence
• Community Health and Evidence-Based Practice
Introduction
The purpose of this comprehensive practice examination is to assess and remediate critical nursing knowledge, clinical judgment, and
decision-making skills required for safe and effective patient care. This exam evaluates a broad spectrum of foundational theory, regulatory
standards, ethical principles, and professional nursing concepts. Comprising structured multiple-choice and scenario-based questions, the
assessment challenges the learner to synthesize complex physiological and psychosocial data. With a strict emphasis on real-world clinical
application, prioritized care interventions, and legal compliance guidelines, this testing tool prepares candidates to demonstrate entry-level
clinical competence and excel in standardized nursing licensure evaluations.
Section One: Questions 1–100
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following findings is the
priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A. Urinary output of 110 mL over the last 4 hours
B. Tenderness in the right calf upon ambulation
C. Serosanguineous drainage on the abdominal dressing
D. Decreased bowel sounds in all four quadrants
🟢 B. Tenderness in the right calf upon ambulation
🔴 RATIONALE: Calf tenderness upon ambulation can indicate the development of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which carries a high risk
for pulmonary embolism. Utilizing the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) framework, this circulatory complication takes priority over
diminished bowel sounds (expected postoperatively), minimal serosanguineous drainage, or low-normal urine output (which should be
monitored but is not immediately life-threatening).
Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take prior to administering the medication?
,A. Measure the client's blood pressure.
B. Check the client's apical pulse for 1 full minute.
C. Assess the client for peripheral edema.
D. Monitor the client's intake and output.
🟢 B. Check the client's apical pulse for 1 full minute.
🔴 RATIONALE: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that decreases the heart rate while increasing contractility. The nurse must assess the
apical pulse for 1 full minute before administration. The medication should be withheld, and the provider notified, if the apical pulse is less
than 60/min in an adult, as bradycardia is a primary sign of digoxin toxicity.
Question 3
A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client. Which of the following actions
by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention?
A. Separating the labia minora with the non-dominant hand
B. Cleansing the perineal area from the clitoris to the anus
C. Lubricating the catheter tip 2.5 to 5 cm (1 to 2 inches)
D. Securing the catheter tubing to the client's abdomen
🟢 D. Securing the catheter tubing to the client's abdomen
🔴 RATIONALE: For a female client, the indwelling urinary catheter tubing should be secured to the inner thigh to prevent traction, urethral
trauma, and accidental dislodgement. Securing it to the abdomen is appropriate for male clients to decrease the pressure on the
penoscrotal angle. The other actions represent correct sterile technique and anatomical considerations for a female client.
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism. The
client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 95 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate by 100 units/hr.
B. Discontinue the heparin infusion permanently.
C. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
D. Maintain the current infusion rate and retest in 4 hours.
🟢 C. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
🔴 RATIONALE: The expected therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control value (typically 30
to 40 seconds), resulting in a therapeutic target of roughly 45 to 100 seconds. However, an aPTT of 95 seconds approaching or exceeding
institutional protocols, combined with active bleeding risks or toxic levels, requires immediate action. Specifically, if the values indicate
severe toxicity or if a protocol establishes a lower therapeutic ceiling, holding the infusion or administering the antidote protamine sulfate is
required to prevent major hemorrhage.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the
water-seal chamber. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
,A. The system is functioning normally.
B. There is an air leak in the system.
C. The client's lung has fully re-expanded.
D. The suction pressure is set too high.
🟢 B. There is an air leak in the system.
🔴 RATIONALE: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak within the drainage system or at the insertion site.
Intermittent bubbling is expected during expiration, coughing, or sneezing while air is being cleared from the pleural space. Normal
continuous bubbling should only occur in the suction control chamber if suction is applied.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is at risk for pressure injury development. Which of the following interventions should the
nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Massage reddened bony prominences daily.
B. Use a turning sheet to reposition the client.
C. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees.
D. Cleanse the skin with hot water and soap.
🟢 B. Use a turning sheet to reposition the client.
🔴 RATIONALE: Using a drawsheet or turning sheet prevents shearing forces on the fragile skin of an older adult during repositioning.
Massaging reddened areas causes deeper tissue damage, elevating the bed above 30 degrees increases shearing forces on the sacrum,
and hot water dries out skin, increasing the risk of breakdown.
Question 7
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an infant who is 6 months old. Which of the following muscles should the
nurse select as the injection site?
A. Deltoid
B. Ventrogluteal
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Dorsogluteal
🟢 C. Vastus lateralis
🔴 RATIONALE: The vastus lateralis muscle (anterolateral thigh) is the preferred and safest site for intramuscular injections in infants under
12 months of age because it is the most developed muscle mass at this stage of growth. The deltoid muscle is not sufficiently developed,
and the gluteal sites carry a risk of sciatic nerve injury before walking develops muscle mass.
Question 8
A nurse is evaluating a client who has schizophrenia and is taking haloperidol. The nurse notes that the client has a high fever, muscle
rigidity, tachycardia, and a fluctuating blood pressure. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B. Acute dystonic reaction
C. Tardive dyskinesia
, D. Pseudoparkinsonism
🟢 A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
🔴 RATIONALE: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare, life-threatening adverse effect of antipsychotic medications such as
haloperidol. Symptoms include severe muscle rigidity, hyperpyrexia (high fever), autonomic instability (tachycardia, fluctuating blood
pressure), and altered mental status. Immediate discontinuation of the drug and supportive medical intervention are required.
Question 9
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about dietary choices with a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following food
choices indicated by the client demonstrates an understanding of a low-potassium diet?
A. Bananas and cantaloupe
B. Spinach and tomatoes
C. Apples and grapes
D. Avocados and potatoes
🟢 C. Apples and grapes
🔴 RATIONALE: Clients with chronic kidney disease need to restrict potassium intake because poorly functioning kidneys cannot excrete
excess potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Apples, grapes, berries, and pineapples are low in potassium. Bananas, cantaloupe, spinach,
tomatoes, avocados, and potatoes are all high-potassium foods that must be avoided.
Question 10
A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) values of a client who has been vomiting for 24 hours. The results are: pH 7.50, PaCO2 44
mmHg, HCO3 32 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base imbalances is the client experiencing?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
🟢 D. Metabolic alkalosis
🔴 RATIONALE: The client's pH is greater than 7.45, indicating alkalosis. The bicarbonate (HCO3) is elevated above the normal range of
22 to 26 mEq/L, indicating a metabolic cause. The PaCO2 is within the normal range (35 to 45 mmHg), confirming that there is no
respiratory compensation yet. Loss of gastric acid via vomiting results in metabolic alkalosis.
Question 11
A nurse is preparing to care for a client who is under airborne precautions. Which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE) is
required for the nurse to wear when entering the client's room?
A. Surgical mask
B. N95 respirator
C. Gown and gloves
D. Face shield
🟢 B. N95 respirator
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A |LATEST EXAM UPDATE 2026/2027..
Core Domains
• Fundamentals of Nursing Care
• Pharmacology and Safe Medication Administration
• Medical-Surgical Nursing and Pathophysiology
• Maternal-Newborn and Pediatric Nursing
• Mental Health Nursing Care
• Nursing Leadership, Management, and Jurisprudence
• Community Health and Evidence-Based Practice
Introduction
The purpose of this comprehensive practice examination is to assess and remediate critical nursing knowledge, clinical judgment, and
decision-making skills required for safe and effective patient care. This exam evaluates a broad spectrum of foundational theory, regulatory
standards, ethical principles, and professional nursing concepts. Comprising structured multiple-choice and scenario-based questions, the
assessment challenges the learner to synthesize complex physiological and psychosocial data. With a strict emphasis on real-world clinical
application, prioritized care interventions, and legal compliance guidelines, this testing tool prepares candidates to demonstrate entry-level
clinical competence and excel in standardized nursing licensure evaluations.
Section One: Questions 1–100
Question 1
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an abdominal hysterectomy. Which of the following findings is the
priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A. Urinary output of 110 mL over the last 4 hours
B. Tenderness in the right calf upon ambulation
C. Serosanguineous drainage on the abdominal dressing
D. Decreased bowel sounds in all four quadrants
🟢 B. Tenderness in the right calf upon ambulation
🔴 RATIONALE: Calf tenderness upon ambulation can indicate the development of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which carries a high risk
for pulmonary embolism. Utilizing the airway, breathing, circulation (ABC) framework, this circulatory complication takes priority over
diminished bowel sounds (expected postoperatively), minimal serosanguineous drainage, or low-normal urine output (which should be
monitored but is not immediately life-threatening).
Question 2
A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily to a client with heart failure. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take prior to administering the medication?
,A. Measure the client's blood pressure.
B. Check the client's apical pulse for 1 full minute.
C. Assess the client for peripheral edema.
D. Monitor the client's intake and output.
🟢 B. Check the client's apical pulse for 1 full minute.
🔴 RATIONALE: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that decreases the heart rate while increasing contractility. The nurse must assess the
apical pulse for 1 full minute before administration. The medication should be withheld, and the provider notified, if the apical pulse is less
than 60/min in an adult, as bradycardia is a primary sign of digoxin toxicity.
Question 3
A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female client. Which of the following actions
by the newly licensed nurse requires intervention?
A. Separating the labia minora with the non-dominant hand
B. Cleansing the perineal area from the clitoris to the anus
C. Lubricating the catheter tip 2.5 to 5 cm (1 to 2 inches)
D. Securing the catheter tubing to the client's abdomen
🟢 D. Securing the catheter tubing to the client's abdomen
🔴 RATIONALE: For a female client, the indwelling urinary catheter tubing should be secured to the inner thigh to prevent traction, urethral
trauma, and accidental dislodgement. Securing it to the abdomen is appropriate for male clients to decrease the pressure on the
penoscrotal angle. The other actions represent correct sterile technique and anatomical considerations for a female client.
Question 4
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving a continuous intravenous heparin infusion for a pulmonary embolism. The
client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 95 seconds. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Increase the heparin infusion rate by 100 units/hr.
B. Discontinue the heparin infusion permanently.
C. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
D. Maintain the current infusion rate and retest in 4 hours.
🟢 C. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
🔴 RATIONALE: The expected therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control value (typically 30
to 40 seconds), resulting in a therapeutic target of roughly 45 to 100 seconds. However, an aPTT of 95 seconds approaching or exceeding
institutional protocols, combined with active bleeding risks or toxic levels, requires immediate action. Specifically, if the values indicate
severe toxicity or if a protocol establishes a lower therapeutic ceiling, holding the infusion or administering the antidote protamine sulfate is
required to prevent major hemorrhage.
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal drainage system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the
water-seal chamber. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
,A. The system is functioning normally.
B. There is an air leak in the system.
C. The client's lung has fully re-expanded.
D. The suction pressure is set too high.
🟢 B. There is an air leak in the system.
🔴 RATIONALE: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak within the drainage system or at the insertion site.
Intermittent bubbling is expected during expiration, coughing, or sneezing while air is being cleared from the pleural space. Normal
continuous bubbling should only occur in the suction control chamber if suction is applied.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is at risk for pressure injury development. Which of the following interventions should the
nurse include in the plan of care?
A. Massage reddened bony prominences daily.
B. Use a turning sheet to reposition the client.
C. Keep the head of the bed elevated at 45 degrees.
D. Cleanse the skin with hot water and soap.
🟢 B. Use a turning sheet to reposition the client.
🔴 RATIONALE: Using a drawsheet or turning sheet prevents shearing forces on the fragile skin of an older adult during repositioning.
Massaging reddened areas causes deeper tissue damage, elevating the bed above 30 degrees increases shearing forces on the sacrum,
and hot water dries out skin, increasing the risk of breakdown.
Question 7
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an infant who is 6 months old. Which of the following muscles should the
nurse select as the injection site?
A. Deltoid
B. Ventrogluteal
C. Vastus lateralis
D. Dorsogluteal
🟢 C. Vastus lateralis
🔴 RATIONALE: The vastus lateralis muscle (anterolateral thigh) is the preferred and safest site for intramuscular injections in infants under
12 months of age because it is the most developed muscle mass at this stage of growth. The deltoid muscle is not sufficiently developed,
and the gluteal sites carry a risk of sciatic nerve injury before walking develops muscle mass.
Question 8
A nurse is evaluating a client who has schizophrenia and is taking haloperidol. The nurse notes that the client has a high fever, muscle
rigidity, tachycardia, and a fluctuating blood pressure. Which of the following complications should the nurse suspect?
A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
B. Acute dystonic reaction
C. Tardive dyskinesia
, D. Pseudoparkinsonism
🟢 A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
🔴 RATIONALE: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare, life-threatening adverse effect of antipsychotic medications such as
haloperidol. Symptoms include severe muscle rigidity, hyperpyrexia (high fever), autonomic instability (tachycardia, fluctuating blood
pressure), and altered mental status. Immediate discontinuation of the drug and supportive medical intervention are required.
Question 9
A nurse is reinforcing teaching about dietary choices with a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which of the following food
choices indicated by the client demonstrates an understanding of a low-potassium diet?
A. Bananas and cantaloupe
B. Spinach and tomatoes
C. Apples and grapes
D. Avocados and potatoes
🟢 C. Apples and grapes
🔴 RATIONALE: Clients with chronic kidney disease need to restrict potassium intake because poorly functioning kidneys cannot excrete
excess potassium, leading to hyperkalemia. Apples, grapes, berries, and pineapples are low in potassium. Bananas, cantaloupe, spinach,
tomatoes, avocados, and potatoes are all high-potassium foods that must be avoided.
Question 10
A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas (ABG) values of a client who has been vomiting for 24 hours. The results are: pH 7.50, PaCO2 44
mmHg, HCO3 32 mEq/L. Which of the following acid-base imbalances is the client experiencing?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
🟢 D. Metabolic alkalosis
🔴 RATIONALE: The client's pH is greater than 7.45, indicating alkalosis. The bicarbonate (HCO3) is elevated above the normal range of
22 to 26 mEq/L, indicating a metabolic cause. The PaCO2 is within the normal range (35 to 45 mmHg), confirming that there is no
respiratory compensation yet. Loss of gastric acid via vomiting results in metabolic alkalosis.
Question 11
A nurse is preparing to care for a client who is under airborne precautions. Which of the following personal protective equipment (PPE) is
required for the nurse to wear when entering the client's room?
A. Surgical mask
B. N95 respirator
C. Gown and gloves
D. Face shield
🟢 B. N95 respirator
