Tennessee Master Barber Exam — 2026–2027 Study Guide
100-Question PSI Theory Examination Practice Test with Answers and Rationales
Tennessee Board of Cosmetology and Barber Examiners (TDCI) | 70% Passing Score | 1,500 Hours Training
Domain I: Scientific Concepts — Infection Control and Safety (Q1–Q14)
1. Which type of pathogen causes ringworm (tinea)?
Bacteria Virus
Fungus Parasite
Ringworm is caused by a fungal infection of the skin, scalp, or nails (dermatophytes). It is highly contagious and is a
contraindication for barbering services; the client must be referred to a physician.
2. Staphylococcus bacteria are classified by which shape?
Bacilli Cocci
Spirilla Diplococci
Staphylococcus is a spherical (round) bacterium classified as coccus (plural: cocci). Cocci appear in clusters
(staphylococci) or chains (streptococci). Bacilli are rod-shaped, and spirilla are spiral-shaped.
3. Which type of infection is confined to a specific part of the body?
General infection Systemic infection
Local infection Communicable infection
A local infection is limited to a specific area of the body, such as a single pimple or an infected cut. General and
systemic infections spread throughout the body via the bloodstream or lymphatic system.
4. Transmission of infection by touching a contaminated doorknob is an example of:
Direct transmission Indirect transmission
Vector transmission Airborne transmission
Indirect transmission occurs through contact with contaminated inanimate objects (fomites) such as doorknobs, combs,
clipper handles, or towels. Direct transmission requires person-to-person contact.
5. Which level of infection control completely destroys ALL microbial life, including bacterial spores?
Sanitation Disinfection
Sterilization Cleaning
Sterilization is the complete destruction of all microbial life including bacterial spores. It is achieved through an
autoclave (moist heat under pressure at 250°F/121°C for 20 minutes) or dry heat sterilization.
1
,6. What is the recommended dilution ratio of bleach (sodium hypochlorite) for disinfecting blood spills?
1:100 dilution 1:10 dilution
1:50 dilution 1:20 dilution
A 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite (household bleach) is the standard for disinfecting blood spills in a barber shop.
This means one part bleach to ten parts water.
7. An autoclave sterilizes instruments using:
Dry heat at 320°F Moist heat under pressure at 250°F (121°C)
Ultraviolet light Chemical vapor
An autoclave uses moist heat under pressure (steam) at 250°F (121°C) for a minimum of 20 minutes to achieve
sterilization. This method destroys all microorganisms including bacterial spores.
8. According to OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, barbers must:
Wear gloves only when visible blood is present Treat all blood and body fluids as potentially
infectious
Report all exposures within 30 days Use only disposable implements
Universal precautions require treating ALL blood and bodily fluids as if they are known to be infectious for HIV,
Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and other bloodborne pathogens, regardless of the source.
9. Which type of disinfectant is required for barber implements that have come into contact with blood?
Hospital-grade, EPA-registered disinfectant 70% isopropyl alcohol only
Quaternary ammonium compound (quat) only Phenolic solution only
Hospital-grade, EPA-registered disinfectants are required for implements that contact blood. The EPA registration
confirms proven effectiveness against specific pathogens including HIV, HBV, and HCV.
10. What is the FIRST step when a blood exposure incident occurs during a barbering service?
Apply a bandage to the client Stop the service, put on gloves, and clean and
disinfect the area
Notify the state board immediately Dispose of all implements in the regular trash
The correct blood exposure procedure is: (1) stop the service, (2) put on gloves, (3) clean and disinfect the area, and
(4) dispose of contaminated materials in a properly labeled biohazard container.
11. Immunity that is present at birth and provides natural defense against disease is called:
Acquired immunity Active immunity
Innate (natural) immunity Artificial immunity
Innate (natural) immunity is the body's built-in, non-specific defense system present from birth, including physical
barriers like skin and mucous membranes, as well as phagocytic cells.
12. Which bloodborne pathogens are of GREATEST concern in a barber shop setting?
Common cold and influenza HIV and Hepatitis B/C
2
, Measles and mumps Strep throat and tuberculosis
HIV and Hepatitis B and C are the primary bloodborne pathogen concerns because they can be transmitted through
contact with infected blood on implements such as razors, shears, and clippers.
13. Quaternary ammonium compounds (quats) are effective against:
Bacteria, fungi, and some viruses All viruses and bacterial spores
Only gram-positive bacteria Only fungi and parasites
Quats are EPA-registered disinfectants effective against bacteria, fungi, and some (enveloped) viruses. They do NOT
destroy bacterial spores or all non-enveloped viruses, so they are not sterilants.
14. According to Tennessee barber regulations (Title 62, Chapter 3; Rules 0440-01), barber shops must:
Be licensed and display the license prominently Only be inspected once per year
Operate without a license if a master barber is employed Submit to monthly health department inspections
Tennessee law (TCA Title 62, Chapter 3; TDCI Rules 0440-01) requires all barber shops to be licensed by the
Tennessee Board of Cosmetology and Barber Examiners (combined 2014), and the license must be prominently
displayed in the shop.
Domain II: Scientific Concepts — Anatomy, Physiology, and Chemistry (Q15–Q35)
15. How many bones make up the cranium (skull cap)?
6 bones 8 bones
10 bones 14 bones
The cranium consists of 8 bones: 1 frontal, 2 parietal, 2 temporal, 1 occipital, 1 sphenoid, and 1 ethmoid. An additional
14 bones make up the face for a total of 22 skull bones.
16. Which bone of the face forms the lower jaw and is the only movable bone of the skull?
Maxilla Zygomatic
Mandible Temporal bone
The mandible (lower jawbone) is the largest and strongest bone of the face and the only movable bone of the skull. It
articulates with the temporal bone at the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
17. Which muscle is the primary muscle responsible for closing the jaw during chewing?
Frontalis Temporalis
Masseter Buccinator
The masseter is the strongest muscle of mastication (chewing). It elevates the mandible to close the jaw and is located
at the angle of the jaw. It can exert significant force.
18. The fifth cranial nerve (trigeminal nerve) has how many branches?
2 branches 3 branches
4 branches 5 branches
3
100-Question PSI Theory Examination Practice Test with Answers and Rationales
Tennessee Board of Cosmetology and Barber Examiners (TDCI) | 70% Passing Score | 1,500 Hours Training
Domain I: Scientific Concepts — Infection Control and Safety (Q1–Q14)
1. Which type of pathogen causes ringworm (tinea)?
Bacteria Virus
Fungus Parasite
Ringworm is caused by a fungal infection of the skin, scalp, or nails (dermatophytes). It is highly contagious and is a
contraindication for barbering services; the client must be referred to a physician.
2. Staphylococcus bacteria are classified by which shape?
Bacilli Cocci
Spirilla Diplococci
Staphylococcus is a spherical (round) bacterium classified as coccus (plural: cocci). Cocci appear in clusters
(staphylococci) or chains (streptococci). Bacilli are rod-shaped, and spirilla are spiral-shaped.
3. Which type of infection is confined to a specific part of the body?
General infection Systemic infection
Local infection Communicable infection
A local infection is limited to a specific area of the body, such as a single pimple or an infected cut. General and
systemic infections spread throughout the body via the bloodstream or lymphatic system.
4. Transmission of infection by touching a contaminated doorknob is an example of:
Direct transmission Indirect transmission
Vector transmission Airborne transmission
Indirect transmission occurs through contact with contaminated inanimate objects (fomites) such as doorknobs, combs,
clipper handles, or towels. Direct transmission requires person-to-person contact.
5. Which level of infection control completely destroys ALL microbial life, including bacterial spores?
Sanitation Disinfection
Sterilization Cleaning
Sterilization is the complete destruction of all microbial life including bacterial spores. It is achieved through an
autoclave (moist heat under pressure at 250°F/121°C for 20 minutes) or dry heat sterilization.
1
,6. What is the recommended dilution ratio of bleach (sodium hypochlorite) for disinfecting blood spills?
1:100 dilution 1:10 dilution
1:50 dilution 1:20 dilution
A 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite (household bleach) is the standard for disinfecting blood spills in a barber shop.
This means one part bleach to ten parts water.
7. An autoclave sterilizes instruments using:
Dry heat at 320°F Moist heat under pressure at 250°F (121°C)
Ultraviolet light Chemical vapor
An autoclave uses moist heat under pressure (steam) at 250°F (121°C) for a minimum of 20 minutes to achieve
sterilization. This method destroys all microorganisms including bacterial spores.
8. According to OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, barbers must:
Wear gloves only when visible blood is present Treat all blood and body fluids as potentially
infectious
Report all exposures within 30 days Use only disposable implements
Universal precautions require treating ALL blood and bodily fluids as if they are known to be infectious for HIV,
Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and other bloodborne pathogens, regardless of the source.
9. Which type of disinfectant is required for barber implements that have come into contact with blood?
Hospital-grade, EPA-registered disinfectant 70% isopropyl alcohol only
Quaternary ammonium compound (quat) only Phenolic solution only
Hospital-grade, EPA-registered disinfectants are required for implements that contact blood. The EPA registration
confirms proven effectiveness against specific pathogens including HIV, HBV, and HCV.
10. What is the FIRST step when a blood exposure incident occurs during a barbering service?
Apply a bandage to the client Stop the service, put on gloves, and clean and
disinfect the area
Notify the state board immediately Dispose of all implements in the regular trash
The correct blood exposure procedure is: (1) stop the service, (2) put on gloves, (3) clean and disinfect the area, and
(4) dispose of contaminated materials in a properly labeled biohazard container.
11. Immunity that is present at birth and provides natural defense against disease is called:
Acquired immunity Active immunity
Innate (natural) immunity Artificial immunity
Innate (natural) immunity is the body's built-in, non-specific defense system present from birth, including physical
barriers like skin and mucous membranes, as well as phagocytic cells.
12. Which bloodborne pathogens are of GREATEST concern in a barber shop setting?
Common cold and influenza HIV and Hepatitis B/C
2
, Measles and mumps Strep throat and tuberculosis
HIV and Hepatitis B and C are the primary bloodborne pathogen concerns because they can be transmitted through
contact with infected blood on implements such as razors, shears, and clippers.
13. Quaternary ammonium compounds (quats) are effective against:
Bacteria, fungi, and some viruses All viruses and bacterial spores
Only gram-positive bacteria Only fungi and parasites
Quats are EPA-registered disinfectants effective against bacteria, fungi, and some (enveloped) viruses. They do NOT
destroy bacterial spores or all non-enveloped viruses, so they are not sterilants.
14. According to Tennessee barber regulations (Title 62, Chapter 3; Rules 0440-01), barber shops must:
Be licensed and display the license prominently Only be inspected once per year
Operate without a license if a master barber is employed Submit to monthly health department inspections
Tennessee law (TCA Title 62, Chapter 3; TDCI Rules 0440-01) requires all barber shops to be licensed by the
Tennessee Board of Cosmetology and Barber Examiners (combined 2014), and the license must be prominently
displayed in the shop.
Domain II: Scientific Concepts — Anatomy, Physiology, and Chemistry (Q15–Q35)
15. How many bones make up the cranium (skull cap)?
6 bones 8 bones
10 bones 14 bones
The cranium consists of 8 bones: 1 frontal, 2 parietal, 2 temporal, 1 occipital, 1 sphenoid, and 1 ethmoid. An additional
14 bones make up the face for a total of 22 skull bones.
16. Which bone of the face forms the lower jaw and is the only movable bone of the skull?
Maxilla Zygomatic
Mandible Temporal bone
The mandible (lower jawbone) is the largest and strongest bone of the face and the only movable bone of the skull. It
articulates with the temporal bone at the temporomandibular joint (TMJ).
17. Which muscle is the primary muscle responsible for closing the jaw during chewing?
Frontalis Temporalis
Masseter Buccinator
The masseter is the strongest muscle of mastication (chewing). It elevates the mandible to close the jaw and is located
at the angle of the jaw. It can exert significant force.
18. The fifth cranial nerve (trigeminal nerve) has how many branches?
2 branches 3 branches
4 branches 5 branches
3
