ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 Test
Bank with Verified Answers 2026/2027 –
Verified Q&As with Detailed Rationales (Test
Bank Bundle - 79 Questions)
---
**QUESTION 1:**
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
A) Administer the medication via the IM route
B) Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe
C) Inject the medication into the abdomen
D) Aspirate for blood return before injection
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** C) Inject the medication into the abdomen
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin administered
subcutaneously into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption and reduce hematoma risk. IM route (A)
is incorrect and can cause hematoma. Air bubbles (B) should not be expelled as they prevent medication
loss. Aspiration (D) is unnecessary and can cause tissue damage.
---
**QUESTION 2:**
A client with dehydration is receiving IV fluids. Which of the following findings indicates that the
treatment is effective?
A) Decreased urine specific gravity
B) Increased hematocrit
C) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Decreased skin turgor
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** A) Decreased urine specific gravity
,> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Rehydration dilutes urine, decreasing specific gravity, signaling
improved fluid balance. Increased hematocrit (B) and BUN (C) indicate hemoconcentration and
dehydration. Decreased skin turgor (D) is a sign of continued dehydration, not improvement.
---
**QUESTION 3:**
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions is most
important?
A) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
B) Keep the blood at room temperature for 30 minutes before infusion
C) Prime the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water
D) Administer the blood over 1 hour
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** A) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Proper identification is critical to prevent hemolytic transfusion
reactions from incompatible blood. Blood should only be at room temperature for 30 minutes max (B),
but ID verification is paramount. D5W (C) is contraindicated as it can hemolyze RBCs. Infusion time (D) is
typically 2-4 hours, not 1.
---
**QUESTION 4:**
Which client is at highest risk for developing a pressure injury?
A) A client with a BMI of 24
B) A client who is bedridden after a stroke
C) A client who ambulates with a walker
D) A client with an indwelling urinary catheter
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** B) A client who is bedridden after a stroke
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Immobility is the primary risk factor for pressure injuries due to
prolonged pressure on bony prominences. A BMI of 24 (A) is normal. Ambulating (C) reduces risk. A
catheter (D) increases infection risk but not pressure injury risk directly.
---
,**QUESTION 5:**
A nurse is performing a focused respiratory assessment. Which sound is indicative of airway narrowing?
A) Stridor
B) Crackles
C) Rhonchi
D) Pleural friction rub
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** A) Stridor
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Stridor is a high-pitched, monophonic sound indicating upper airway
obstruction/narrowing. Crackles (B) indicate fluid in lungs. Rhonchi (C) are low-pitched, suggesting
secretions in larger airways. Pleural rub (D) is a grating sound from pleural inflammation.
---
**QUESTION 6:**
A client has an order for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following is the correct starting
procedure?
A) Start the collection at 0600, and then have the client void at 0600 the next day
B) Have the client void, discard the urine, and then begin the collection
C) Collect all urine including the first void of the morning
D) Begin the collection after the client's first void of the morning and add it to the collection
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** B) Have the client void, discard the urine, and then begin the collection
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** The first void is discarded to establish the start time, and subsequent
voids are collected. Starting at a specific time (A) without discarding the first sample is incorrect.
Including the first void (C) and then adding it (D) over- or under-collects the urine.
---
**QUESTION 7:**
A client who is post-operative day 1 has a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F). What is the most likely cause?
A) Wound infection
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Atelectasis
, D) Deep vein thrombosis
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** C) Atelectasis
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** In the first 24-48 hours post-op, a low-grade fever is most commonly
caused by atelectasis due to hypoventilation. Infections (A, B) typically manifest later (days 3-5). DVT (D)
usually occurs later and may not present with fever initially.
---
**QUESTION 8:**
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which finding is most specific?
A) Pleuritic chest pain
B) Hemoptysis
C) Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia
D) Calf pain
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** C) Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Sudden onset of dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of
pulmonary embolism due to ventilation-perfusion mismatch. Pleuritic chest pain (A) and hemoptysis (B)
can occur but are less specific. Calf pain (D) suggests DVT, not PE.
---
**QUESTION 9:**
A client has a serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. Which of the following medications should the nurse
plan to administer?
A) Calcium gluconate
B) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
C) Furosemide
D) Insulin and dextrose
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** B) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a cation-exchange resin that lowers
serum potassium by exchanging sodium for potassium in the GI tract. Calcium gluconate (A) stabilizes
the cardiac membrane but does not lower potassium. Furosemide (C) is less effective in renal failure.
Insulin and dextrose (D) shift potassium intracellularly, but the resin removes it.
Bank with Verified Answers 2026/2027 –
Verified Q&As with Detailed Rationales (Test
Bank Bundle - 79 Questions)
---
**QUESTION 1:**
A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
A) Administer the medication via the IM route
B) Expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe
C) Inject the medication into the abdomen
D) Aspirate for blood return before injection
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** C) Inject the medication into the abdomen
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin administered
subcutaneously into the abdomen to ensure proper absorption and reduce hematoma risk. IM route (A)
is incorrect and can cause hematoma. Air bubbles (B) should not be expelled as they prevent medication
loss. Aspiration (D) is unnecessary and can cause tissue damage.
---
**QUESTION 2:**
A client with dehydration is receiving IV fluids. Which of the following findings indicates that the
treatment is effective?
A) Decreased urine specific gravity
B) Increased hematocrit
C) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D) Decreased skin turgor
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** A) Decreased urine specific gravity
,> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Rehydration dilutes urine, decreasing specific gravity, signaling
improved fluid balance. Increased hematocrit (B) and BUN (C) indicate hemoconcentration and
dehydration. Decreased skin turgor (D) is a sign of continued dehydration, not improvement.
---
**QUESTION 3:**
A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions is most
important?
A) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
B) Keep the blood at room temperature for 30 minutes before infusion
C) Prime the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water
D) Administer the blood over 1 hour
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** A) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Proper identification is critical to prevent hemolytic transfusion
reactions from incompatible blood. Blood should only be at room temperature for 30 minutes max (B),
but ID verification is paramount. D5W (C) is contraindicated as it can hemolyze RBCs. Infusion time (D) is
typically 2-4 hours, not 1.
---
**QUESTION 4:**
Which client is at highest risk for developing a pressure injury?
A) A client with a BMI of 24
B) A client who is bedridden after a stroke
C) A client who ambulates with a walker
D) A client with an indwelling urinary catheter
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** B) A client who is bedridden after a stroke
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Immobility is the primary risk factor for pressure injuries due to
prolonged pressure on bony prominences. A BMI of 24 (A) is normal. Ambulating (C) reduces risk. A
catheter (D) increases infection risk but not pressure injury risk directly.
---
,**QUESTION 5:**
A nurse is performing a focused respiratory assessment. Which sound is indicative of airway narrowing?
A) Stridor
B) Crackles
C) Rhonchi
D) Pleural friction rub
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** A) Stridor
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Stridor is a high-pitched, monophonic sound indicating upper airway
obstruction/narrowing. Crackles (B) indicate fluid in lungs. Rhonchi (C) are low-pitched, suggesting
secretions in larger airways. Pleural rub (D) is a grating sound from pleural inflammation.
---
**QUESTION 6:**
A client has an order for a 24-hour urine collection. Which of the following is the correct starting
procedure?
A) Start the collection at 0600, and then have the client void at 0600 the next day
B) Have the client void, discard the urine, and then begin the collection
C) Collect all urine including the first void of the morning
D) Begin the collection after the client's first void of the morning and add it to the collection
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** B) Have the client void, discard the urine, and then begin the collection
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** The first void is discarded to establish the start time, and subsequent
voids are collected. Starting at a specific time (A) without discarding the first sample is incorrect.
Including the first void (C) and then adding it (D) over- or under-collects the urine.
---
**QUESTION 7:**
A client who is post-operative day 1 has a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F). What is the most likely cause?
A) Wound infection
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Atelectasis
, D) Deep vein thrombosis
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** C) Atelectasis
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** In the first 24-48 hours post-op, a low-grade fever is most commonly
caused by atelectasis due to hypoventilation. Infections (A, B) typically manifest later (days 3-5). DVT (D)
usually occurs later and may not present with fever initially.
---
**QUESTION 8:**
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism. Which finding is most specific?
A) Pleuritic chest pain
B) Hemoptysis
C) Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia
D) Calf pain
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** C) Sudden dyspnea and tachycardia
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Sudden onset of dyspnea and tachycardia are hallmark signs of
pulmonary embolism due to ventilation-perfusion mismatch. Pleuritic chest pain (A) and hemoptysis (B)
can occur but are less specific. Calf pain (D) suggests DVT, not PE.
---
**QUESTION 9:**
A client has a serum potassium level of 5.8 mEq/L. Which of the following medications should the nurse
plan to administer?
A) Calcium gluconate
B) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
C) Furosemide
D) Insulin and dextrose
> 🎯 **CORRECT ANSWER:** B) Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
> 💡 **DETAILED RATIONALE:** Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a cation-exchange resin that lowers
serum potassium by exchanging sodium for potassium in the GI tract. Calcium gluconate (A) stabilizes
the cardiac membrane but does not lower potassium. Furosemide (C) is less effective in renal failure.
Insulin and dextrose (D) shift potassium intracellularly, but the resin removes it.
