ATI RN Capstone Proctored Post Assessment Exam
| Complete 81 Questions with Verified Correct
Answers & Detailed Rationales | Ultimate NCLEX-
RN Review | 2026 Updated
ATI RN Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Post-Assessment Exam
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female
client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
• A) Cleanse the perineal area with an antiseptic solution using a circular
motion from the anal area toward the urethra
• B) Position the sterile drape to expose only the perineum
• C) Apply sterile gloves and then open the catheter kit
• D) Lubricate the catheter with petroleum jelly
Answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the sterile drape to expose only the perineum maintains the
sterile field and prevents contamination. The perineum should be cleansed from
the urethra toward the anal area (not the reverse), sterile gloves are applied after
opening the kit, and petroleum jelly should not be used on latex catheters as it can
cause deterioration .
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new colostomy. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
, • A) Change the pouch system daily
• B) Apply skin barrier powder each time the pouch is changed
• C) Cleanse the stoma with soap and water, patting it dry
• D) Empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full
Answer: D
Rationale: Ostomy pouches should be emptied when one-third to one-half full to
prevent leakage due to weight. The pouch system should be changed every 3-7
days or when leaking occurs. Skin barrier powder is used only for irritated skin, and
the stoma should be cleansed gently with warm water without soap .
3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
• A) Remove the old dressing first, then create the sterile field
• B) Wear a mask and create the sterile field away from air currents
• C) Don sterile gloves immediately after removing the old dressing
• D) Pour sterile solution directly onto the sterile field
Answer: B
Rationale: When performing sterile procedures, the sterile field should be created
before the procedure begins and kept away from air currents to prevent
contamination. A surgical mask is worn to prevent droplet contamination. The
sterile field should be prepared before removing the old dressing, sterile gloves are
applied after the field is created, and solution should be poured into a sterile
receptacle .
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is confused and has been placed in wrist
restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
• A) Tie the restraint to the side rail of the bed
• B) Check the client's skin every 4 hours
• C) Complete range-of-motion exercises every 2 hours
, • D) Keep the restraint prescription on a PRN basis
Answer: C
Rationale: To prevent skin breakdown and neurovascular injury, skin checks and
range-of-motion exercises must be performed at least every 2 hours. Restraints
should be tied to a non-moving part of the bed frame (not side rails), skin should
be assessed more frequently, and restraints cannot be ordered PRN .
5. A client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery reports incisional
pain. The nurse observes the client has been using a patient-controlled analgesia
(PCA) pump and is somnolent with a respiratory rate of 8/min. What is the
priority nursing action?
• A) Place the client in a high Fowler's position
• B) Stop the PCA infusion and administer naloxone
• C) Increase the PCA demand dose
• D) Reassess the client in 15 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min with somnolence indicates opioid-induced
respiratory depression, a medical emergency. Stopping the infusion and
administering naloxone (an opioid antagonist) is the priority action .
6. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about advance directives. Which of
the following statements by the client indicates understanding?
• A) "The nurse will help me complete my advance directives"
• B) "My family must agree with my advance directives"
• C) "I can complete advance directives at any time"
• D) "Advance directives are only valid for one year"
Answer: C
Rationale: Advance directives are legal documents that can be completed at any
time. The provider is responsible for discussing advance directives with clients, the
, family's agreement is not required, and advance directives remain valid
indefinitely unless changed .
7. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a pressure
injury. Which of the following findings indicates the client is at risk for delayed
wound healing?
• A) WBC count 8,500/mm³
• B) Albumin 2.5 g/dL
• C) Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
• D) Platelet count 250,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: Low serum albumin (<3.5 g/dL) indicates poor nutritional status, which
impairs wound healing. Normal WBC is 5,000-10,000/mm³, normal hemoglobin is
12-17 g/dL, and normal platelet count is 150,000-400,000/mm³ .
8. A client is receiving a blood transfusion. How often should the nurse monitor
the client's vital signs?
• A) Before the transfusion and every 30 minutes
• B) Before the transfusion and every hour
• C) Before the transfusion and every 15 minutes
• D) Only if a reaction is suspected
Answer: B
Rationale: Vital signs should be monitored before the transfusion and at least
hourly during the transfusion, as well as post-transfusion. This allows early
detection of transfusion reactions .
9. A nurse is caring for a client who requires total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The
TPN solution is infusing 2 hours behind schedule. Which action should the nurse
take?
• A) Double the infusion rate for the next hour
| Complete 81 Questions with Verified Correct
Answers & Detailed Rationales | Ultimate NCLEX-
RN Review | 2026 Updated
ATI RN Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Post-Assessment Exam
SECTION 1: FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING
1. A nurse is preparing to insert an indwelling urinary catheter for a female
client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
• A) Cleanse the perineal area with an antiseptic solution using a circular
motion from the anal area toward the urethra
• B) Position the sterile drape to expose only the perineum
• C) Apply sterile gloves and then open the catheter kit
• D) Lubricate the catheter with petroleum jelly
Answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the sterile drape to expose only the perineum maintains the
sterile field and prevents contamination. The perineum should be cleansed from
the urethra toward the anal area (not the reverse), sterile gloves are applied after
opening the kit, and petroleum jelly should not be used on latex catheters as it can
cause deterioration .
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new colostomy. Which of the following
instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
, • A) Change the pouch system daily
• B) Apply skin barrier powder each time the pouch is changed
• C) Cleanse the stoma with soap and water, patting it dry
• D) Empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full
Answer: D
Rationale: Ostomy pouches should be emptied when one-third to one-half full to
prevent leakage due to weight. The pouch system should be changed every 3-7
days or when leaking occurs. Skin barrier powder is used only for irritated skin, and
the stoma should be cleansed gently with warm water without soap .
3. A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
• A) Remove the old dressing first, then create the sterile field
• B) Wear a mask and create the sterile field away from air currents
• C) Don sterile gloves immediately after removing the old dressing
• D) Pour sterile solution directly onto the sterile field
Answer: B
Rationale: When performing sterile procedures, the sterile field should be created
before the procedure begins and kept away from air currents to prevent
contamination. A surgical mask is worn to prevent droplet contamination. The
sterile field should be prepared before removing the old dressing, sterile gloves are
applied after the field is created, and solution should be poured into a sterile
receptacle .
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is confused and has been placed in wrist
restraints. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
• A) Tie the restraint to the side rail of the bed
• B) Check the client's skin every 4 hours
• C) Complete range-of-motion exercises every 2 hours
, • D) Keep the restraint prescription on a PRN basis
Answer: C
Rationale: To prevent skin breakdown and neurovascular injury, skin checks and
range-of-motion exercises must be performed at least every 2 hours. Restraints
should be tied to a non-moving part of the bed frame (not side rails), skin should
be assessed more frequently, and restraints cannot be ordered PRN .
5. A client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery reports incisional
pain. The nurse observes the client has been using a patient-controlled analgesia
(PCA) pump and is somnolent with a respiratory rate of 8/min. What is the
priority nursing action?
• A) Place the client in a high Fowler's position
• B) Stop the PCA infusion and administer naloxone
• C) Increase the PCA demand dose
• D) Reassess the client in 15 minutes
Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min with somnolence indicates opioid-induced
respiratory depression, a medical emergency. Stopping the infusion and
administering naloxone (an opioid antagonist) is the priority action .
6. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about advance directives. Which of
the following statements by the client indicates understanding?
• A) "The nurse will help me complete my advance directives"
• B) "My family must agree with my advance directives"
• C) "I can complete advance directives at any time"
• D) "Advance directives are only valid for one year"
Answer: C
Rationale: Advance directives are legal documents that can be completed at any
time. The provider is responsible for discussing advance directives with clients, the
, family's agreement is not required, and advance directives remain valid
indefinitely unless changed .
7. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has a pressure
injury. Which of the following findings indicates the client is at risk for delayed
wound healing?
• A) WBC count 8,500/mm³
• B) Albumin 2.5 g/dL
• C) Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
• D) Platelet count 250,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: Low serum albumin (<3.5 g/dL) indicates poor nutritional status, which
impairs wound healing. Normal WBC is 5,000-10,000/mm³, normal hemoglobin is
12-17 g/dL, and normal platelet count is 150,000-400,000/mm³ .
8. A client is receiving a blood transfusion. How often should the nurse monitor
the client's vital signs?
• A) Before the transfusion and every 30 minutes
• B) Before the transfusion and every hour
• C) Before the transfusion and every 15 minutes
• D) Only if a reaction is suspected
Answer: B
Rationale: Vital signs should be monitored before the transfusion and at least
hourly during the transfusion, as well as post-transfusion. This allows early
detection of transfusion reactions .
9. A nurse is caring for a client who requires total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The
TPN solution is infusing 2 hours behind schedule. Which action should the nurse
take?
• A) Double the infusion rate for the next hour
