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NUR 6111 Exam 3 V2 | NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing I | Q&A with Rationale (NUR6111 Exam 3) | William Paterson University

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NUR 6111 Exam 3 V2 | NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing I | Q&A with Rationale (NUR6111 Exam 3) | William Paterson University

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NUR 6111 Exam 3 V2 | NUR 6111
Advanced Practice Nursing I | Q&A with
Rationale (NUR6111 Exam 3) | William
Paterson University
1. A 62-year-old male with a history of heart failure presents with fatigue. On examination, a

third heart sound (S3) is noted. What is the most likely physiological cause of this finding?

A. Rapid ventricular filling into a dilated ventricle


B. Stiffening of the left ventricle


C. Closure of the semilunar valves


D. Atrial contraction against a resistant ventricle


Answer: A


Rationale: The S3 gallop is a classic sign of heart failure and represents blood entering a

compliant or dilated ventricle during early diastole. It is often referred to as a ventricular

gallop and can be normal in children or athletes but is pathological in older adults.

Management typically involves addressing the underlying fluid overload often seen in

systolic dysfunction.


2. According to the JNC 8 guidelines, what is the initial recommended blood pressure

medication for a 55-year-old African American male with no history of diabetes or chronic

kidney disease?

A. Lisinopril

,B. Losartan


C. Amlodipine


D. Metoprolol


Answer: C


Rationale: For the general African American population, initial antihypertensive treatment

should include a thiazide-type diuretic or a calcium channel blocker (CCB). This

recommendation stems from evidence that these classes are more effective at lowering

blood pressure and reducing cardiovascular outcomes in this demographic. ACE inhibitors

and ARBs are generally less effective as monotherapy in African Americans without specific

comorbidities like CKD.


3. A 45-year-old female presents with a dry cough that began after starting a new medication

for hypertension. Which medication is the most likely cause?

A. Enalapril


B. Hydrochlorothiazide


C. Valsartan


D. Verapamil


Answer: A


Rationale: ACE inhibitors, such as Enalapril, are well-known for causing a dry, non-

productive cough in up to 20% of patients. This side effect is attributed to the accumulation

, of bradykinin in the respiratory tract. If the cough is intolerable, the patient should be

switched to an Angiotensin II Receptor Blocker (ARB) which does not affect bradykinin.


4. A patient with a history of persistent asthma is currently using a low-dose inhaled

corticosteroid (ICS) daily but continues to use their SABA four times a week. What is the next

step in management according to GINA guidelines?

A. Switch to a high-dose ICS


B. Add a Long-Acting Muscarinic Antagonist (LAMA)


C. Add a Long-Acting Beta Agonist (LABA)


D. Add an Oral Corticosteroid


Answer: C


Rationale: For patients whose asthma is not controlled on low-dose ICS alone (Step 2), the

preferred Step 3 management is to add a LABA to the low-dose ICS. This combination

therapy improves lung function and reduces the frequency of exacerbations compared to

doubling the dose of ICS. Clinicians must ensure the patient is also using the inhaler with

proper technique before escalating therapy.


5. Which of the following physical exam findings is most characteristic of chronic obstructive

pulmonary disease (COPD)?

A. Hyperresonance to percussion


B. Dullness to percussion


C. Increased tactile fremitus

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