,BIOD 331 Module 4 | Pathophysiology | Portage
Learning | Q & A| 2026 Edition
1. What is the primary role of platelets in primary hemostasis?
A) To convert fibrinogen into fibrin
B) To form a temporary plug at the site of vascular injury
C) To activate the intrinsic coagulation pathway
D) To degrade the fibrin clot after healing
Correct Answer: To form a temporary plug at the site of vascular injury
Rationale: Platelets adhere to exposed collagen at the site of vascular injury, become activated, and
aggregate to form a temporary platelet plug. This primary hemostatic plug provides immediate but
unstable control of bleeding. The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and coagulation pathway activation
occur during secondary hemostasis.
2. A patient with Hemophilia A has a deficiency in which clotting factor?
A) Factor VII
B) Factor VIII
C) Factor IX
D) Factor X
Correct Answer: Factor VIII
Rationale: Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of clotting factor VIII.
This deficiency leads to impaired intrinsic pathway activation and prolonged partial thromboplastin time
(PTT). Hemophilia B involves factor IX deficiency.
3. Which of the following is a characteristic finding in a patient with Hemophilia A?
A) Prolonged PT, normal PTT, and low platelet count
B) Normal PT, prolonged PTT, and normal platelet count
,C) Prolonged PT, prolonged PTT, and low platelet count
D) Normal PT, normal PTT, and high platelet count
Correct Answer: Normal PT, prolonged PTT, and normal platelet count
Rationale: Hemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency of factor VIII, which affects the intrinsic
pathway. This results in a prolonged PTT (partial thromboplastin time) but a normal PT (prothrombin
time) and normal platelet count. PT evaluates the extrinsic pathway, which is unaffected in hemophilia.
4. A patient with Hemophilia A experiences spontaneous joint bleeding and hemarthrosis. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial management for an acute joint bleed?
A) Administer oral aspirin for pain relief
B) Administer factor VIII replacement therapy and immobilize the joint
C) Administer heparin to prevent further clotting
D) Administer vitamin K to enhance clotting factor production
Correct Answer: Administer factor VIII replacement therapy and immobilize the joint
Rationale: The primary treatment for an acute joint bleed in hemophilia is replacement of the deficient
clotting factor (factor VIII) to achieve hemostasis, along with immobilization of the affected joint. Aspirin
is contraindicated as it impairs platelet function and worsens bleeding.
5. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is characterized by which of the following laboratory
findings?
A) Decreased PT and PTT
B) Increased PT and PTT, decreased platelets, and elevated D-dimer
C) Increased platelet count and decreased fibrinogen
D) Normal PT and PTT with elevated D-dimer
Correct Answer: Increased PT and PTT, decreased platelets, and elevated D-dimer
, Rationale: DIC involves widespread activation of coagulation, leading to consumption of clotting factors
and platelets. This results in increased PT and PTT, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets), and
elevated D-dimer (reflecting fibrinolysis). The condition can lead to both thrombosis and bleeding.
6. Which of the following statements about DIC is FALSE?
A) Obstetric disorders are the main cause of DIC
B) Sepsis and trauma are common causes of DIC
C) Lab results show increased PT and PTT
D) DIC involves consumption of clotting factors
Correct Answer: Obstetric disorders are the main cause of DIC
Rationale: While obstetric disorders can precipitate DIC, sepsis and trauma are also common causes.
Describing obstetric disorders as the "main cause" is inaccurate. DIC has multiple etiologies including
sepsis, trauma, malignancy, and obstetric complications.
7. A 65-year-old patient with no significant medical history is diagnosed with DIC following a severe
infection. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of DIC in this patient?
A) Autoimmune disease
B) Sepsis
C) Hemophilia A
D) Factor V Leiden mutation
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Rationale: Sepsis is a common cause of DIC due to systemic inflammation and widespread activation of
the coagulation cascade. The inflammatory response in sepsis triggers tissue factor expression and
endothelial dysfunction, leading to DIC.
8. A patient with DIC is at risk for both thrombosis and hemorrhage because:
A) Coagulation factors are overproduced, causing thrombosis, while platelets are destroyed, causing
hemorrhage
Learning | Q & A| 2026 Edition
1. What is the primary role of platelets in primary hemostasis?
A) To convert fibrinogen into fibrin
B) To form a temporary plug at the site of vascular injury
C) To activate the intrinsic coagulation pathway
D) To degrade the fibrin clot after healing
Correct Answer: To form a temporary plug at the site of vascular injury
Rationale: Platelets adhere to exposed collagen at the site of vascular injury, become activated, and
aggregate to form a temporary platelet plug. This primary hemostatic plug provides immediate but
unstable control of bleeding. The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and coagulation pathway activation
occur during secondary hemostasis.
2. A patient with Hemophilia A has a deficiency in which clotting factor?
A) Factor VII
B) Factor VIII
C) Factor IX
D) Factor X
Correct Answer: Factor VIII
Rationale: Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive disorder caused by a deficiency of clotting factor VIII.
This deficiency leads to impaired intrinsic pathway activation and prolonged partial thromboplastin time
(PTT). Hemophilia B involves factor IX deficiency.
3. Which of the following is a characteristic finding in a patient with Hemophilia A?
A) Prolonged PT, normal PTT, and low platelet count
B) Normal PT, prolonged PTT, and normal platelet count
,C) Prolonged PT, prolonged PTT, and low platelet count
D) Normal PT, normal PTT, and high platelet count
Correct Answer: Normal PT, prolonged PTT, and normal platelet count
Rationale: Hemophilia A is characterized by a deficiency of factor VIII, which affects the intrinsic
pathway. This results in a prolonged PTT (partial thromboplastin time) but a normal PT (prothrombin
time) and normal platelet count. PT evaluates the extrinsic pathway, which is unaffected in hemophilia.
4. A patient with Hemophilia A experiences spontaneous joint bleeding and hemarthrosis. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial management for an acute joint bleed?
A) Administer oral aspirin for pain relief
B) Administer factor VIII replacement therapy and immobilize the joint
C) Administer heparin to prevent further clotting
D) Administer vitamin K to enhance clotting factor production
Correct Answer: Administer factor VIII replacement therapy and immobilize the joint
Rationale: The primary treatment for an acute joint bleed in hemophilia is replacement of the deficient
clotting factor (factor VIII) to achieve hemostasis, along with immobilization of the affected joint. Aspirin
is contraindicated as it impairs platelet function and worsens bleeding.
5. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) is characterized by which of the following laboratory
findings?
A) Decreased PT and PTT
B) Increased PT and PTT, decreased platelets, and elevated D-dimer
C) Increased platelet count and decreased fibrinogen
D) Normal PT and PTT with elevated D-dimer
Correct Answer: Increased PT and PTT, decreased platelets, and elevated D-dimer
, Rationale: DIC involves widespread activation of coagulation, leading to consumption of clotting factors
and platelets. This results in increased PT and PTT, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets), and
elevated D-dimer (reflecting fibrinolysis). The condition can lead to both thrombosis and bleeding.
6. Which of the following statements about DIC is FALSE?
A) Obstetric disorders are the main cause of DIC
B) Sepsis and trauma are common causes of DIC
C) Lab results show increased PT and PTT
D) DIC involves consumption of clotting factors
Correct Answer: Obstetric disorders are the main cause of DIC
Rationale: While obstetric disorders can precipitate DIC, sepsis and trauma are also common causes.
Describing obstetric disorders as the "main cause" is inaccurate. DIC has multiple etiologies including
sepsis, trauma, malignancy, and obstetric complications.
7. A 65-year-old patient with no significant medical history is diagnosed with DIC following a severe
infection. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of DIC in this patient?
A) Autoimmune disease
B) Sepsis
C) Hemophilia A
D) Factor V Leiden mutation
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Rationale: Sepsis is a common cause of DIC due to systemic inflammation and widespread activation of
the coagulation cascade. The inflammatory response in sepsis triggers tissue factor expression and
endothelial dysfunction, leading to DIC.
8. A patient with DIC is at risk for both thrombosis and hemorrhage because:
A) Coagulation factors are overproduced, causing thrombosis, while platelets are destroyed, causing
hemorrhage
