NBCRNA NCE – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS |
VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM
UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE
TEST| DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF
1. A patient under general anesthesia develops a sudden increase in end-tidal
CO₂. The most likely cause is:
A. Hypothermia
B. Malignant hyperthermia
C. Hypoventilation from opioid overdose
D. Pulmonary embolism
A rapid rise in ETCO₂ with rigidity and hyperthermia is classic for malignant
hyperthermia requiring immediate dantrolene.
2. The primary mechanism of action of propofol is:
A. NMDA receptor blockade
B. GABA-A receptor potentiation
C. Dopamine antagonism
D. Sodium channel activation
RATIONALE: Propofol enhances inhibitory GABA activity causing hypnosis and
sedation.
3. A patient develops hypotension after induction with propofol. The best
initial action is:
A. Administer vasopressor
B. Increase propofol dose
C. Stop all fluids
D. Administer insulin
RATIONALE: Propofol causes vasodilation and myocardial depression leading to
hypotension treated with vasopressors.
4. Which inhalational anesthetic has the fastest emergence due to lowest
blood-gas solubility?
,A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Desflurane
RATIONALE: Low solubility allows rapid uptake and elimination.
5. A patient under anesthesia develops bronchospasm. First-line treatment is:
A. Epinephrine
B. Albuterol
C. Atropine
D. Furosemide
RATIONALE: Inhaled beta-agonists are first-line for bronchospasm.
6. Which neuromuscular blocker is depolarizing?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Succinylcholine
D. Cisatracurium
RATIONALE: It causes persistent depolarization at the neuromuscular junction.
7. A complication of succinylcholine is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypertension
D. Hypothermia
RATIONALE: Potassium release from muscle cells can cause dangerous
hyperkalemia.
8. The reversal agent for benzodiazepines is:
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Atropine
, D. Protamine
RATIONALE: Flumazenil antagonizes benzodiazepine effects at GABA receptors.
9. A patient with opioid-induced respiratory depression should receive:
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Vitamin K
D. Calcium gluconate
RATIONALE: Naloxone reverses opioid effects.
10. Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is defined as:
A. Dose causing apnea
B. Concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients
C. Dose causing cardiac arrest
D. Minimum sedation level
RATIONALE: MAC measures potency of inhaled anesthetics.
11. A sign of local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) is:
A. Hypertension only
B. Seizures
C. Bradycardia only
D. Hypothermia
RATIONALE: CNS excitation is an early sign of toxicity.
12. The lipid emulsion therapy is used to treat:
A. Malignant hyperthermia
B. LAST
C. Hypotension
D. Hypoglycemia
RATIONALE: Lipid emulsion binds local anesthetics in bloodstream.
VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM
UPDATE | EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE
TEST| DOWNLOAD INSTANT PDF
1. A patient under general anesthesia develops a sudden increase in end-tidal
CO₂. The most likely cause is:
A. Hypothermia
B. Malignant hyperthermia
C. Hypoventilation from opioid overdose
D. Pulmonary embolism
A rapid rise in ETCO₂ with rigidity and hyperthermia is classic for malignant
hyperthermia requiring immediate dantrolene.
2. The primary mechanism of action of propofol is:
A. NMDA receptor blockade
B. GABA-A receptor potentiation
C. Dopamine antagonism
D. Sodium channel activation
RATIONALE: Propofol enhances inhibitory GABA activity causing hypnosis and
sedation.
3. A patient develops hypotension after induction with propofol. The best
initial action is:
A. Administer vasopressor
B. Increase propofol dose
C. Stop all fluids
D. Administer insulin
RATIONALE: Propofol causes vasodilation and myocardial depression leading to
hypotension treated with vasopressors.
4. Which inhalational anesthetic has the fastest emergence due to lowest
blood-gas solubility?
,A. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
C. Sevoflurane
D. Desflurane
RATIONALE: Low solubility allows rapid uptake and elimination.
5. A patient under anesthesia develops bronchospasm. First-line treatment is:
A. Epinephrine
B. Albuterol
C. Atropine
D. Furosemide
RATIONALE: Inhaled beta-agonists are first-line for bronchospasm.
6. Which neuromuscular blocker is depolarizing?
A. Rocuronium
B. Vecuronium
C. Succinylcholine
D. Cisatracurium
RATIONALE: It causes persistent depolarization at the neuromuscular junction.
7. A complication of succinylcholine is:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypertension
D. Hypothermia
RATIONALE: Potassium release from muscle cells can cause dangerous
hyperkalemia.
8. The reversal agent for benzodiazepines is:
A. Naloxone
B. Flumazenil
C. Atropine
, D. Protamine
RATIONALE: Flumazenil antagonizes benzodiazepine effects at GABA receptors.
9. A patient with opioid-induced respiratory depression should receive:
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Vitamin K
D. Calcium gluconate
RATIONALE: Naloxone reverses opioid effects.
10. Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is defined as:
A. Dose causing apnea
B. Concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients
C. Dose causing cardiac arrest
D. Minimum sedation level
RATIONALE: MAC measures potency of inhaled anesthetics.
11. A sign of local anesthetic systemic toxicity (LAST) is:
A. Hypertension only
B. Seizures
C. Bradycardia only
D. Hypothermia
RATIONALE: CNS excitation is an early sign of toxicity.
12. The lipid emulsion therapy is used to treat:
A. Malignant hyperthermia
B. LAST
C. Hypotension
D. Hypoglycemia
RATIONALE: Lipid emulsion binds local anesthetics in bloodstream.
