Rasmussen University NUR 2502 Exam 1 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | MDC 3
Q&A | Med-Surg Nursing
1. The nurse is teaching a patient about breast self-examination (BSE).
According to current guidelines, when should women at average risk begin
annual screening mammograms?
A) Age 30
B) Age 35
C) Age 40
D) Age 45
Correct Answer: Age 45
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend that women at average risk begin
annual screening mammograms at age 45. They may choose to begin as
early as age 40. Clinical breast exams are no longer recommended for
routine screening.
2. A patient is diagnosed with invasive ductal carcinoma. Which finding is a
classic sign of inflammatory breast cancer?
A) A palpable, firm, non-tender mass
B) "Peau d'orange" (orange-peel appearance) of the breast skin
C) A small, movable nodule in the upper outer quadrant
D) Nipple retraction without other skin changes
Correct Answer: "Peau d'orange" (orange-peel appearance) of the breast skin
Rationale: "Peau d'orange" is a classic sign of inflammatory breast cancer,
caused by lymphatic obstruction by cancer cells. This type of breast cancer is
aggressive and often presents without a distinct palpable mass.
,3. A patient with a BRCA1 gene mutation asks about her risk for breast
cancer. The nurse's best response is:
A) "You have a moderately increased risk compared to the general
population."
B) "You have a significantly increased risk, estimated between 45–65% by
age 70."
C) "Your risk is slightly elevated, but less than that of the general
population."
D) "You are not at increased risk unless you also have a family history."
Correct Answer: "You have a significantly increased risk, estimated between
45–65% by age 70."
Rationale: BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene mutations significantly increase the risk of
breast and ovarian cancer. Women with these mutations have an estimated
45–65% risk of developing breast cancer by age 70.
4. The nurse is assessing a postmenopausal patient who reports vaginal
bleeding. Which malignancy is most commonly associated with
postmenopausal bleeding?
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Cervical cancer
C) Vaginal cancer
D) Endometrial cancer
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Rationale: Endometrial cancer typically presents with postmenopausal
bleeding. Other symptoms include watery or blood-tinged discharge and
pelvic or back pain. Any postmenopausal bleeding should be promptly
evaluated.
,5. A nurse is teaching a patient about risk factors for breast cancer. Which of
the following is a non-modifiable risk factor?
A) Obesity
B) Alcohol consumption
C) Nulliparity (no pregnancies)
D) Early menarche
Correct Answer: Early menarche
Rationale: Non-modifiable risk factors for breast cancer include increased
age, genetics (BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations), family history, late menopause, and
early menarche. Modifiable risk factors include obesity, alcohol consumption,
lack of exercise, and nulliparity.
6. A patient is scheduled for a total hysterectomy for endometrial cancer.
Which postoperative nursing intervention is a priority?
A) Encouraging early ambulation
B) Maintaining strict bed rest
C) Restricting oral fluids
D) Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: Encouraging early ambulation
Rationale: Postoperative care for a total hysterectomy includes encouraging
early ambulation to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary
embolism. The patient should also receive DVT prophylaxis (e.g., heparin,
enoxaparin) and be monitored for infection, bleeding, and urinary retention.
, 7. A patient with uterine leiomyoma (fibroids) is being evaluated. Which
assessment finding is most consistent with this condition?
A) Postmenopausal bleeding
B) Heavy menstrual bleeding and abdominal distention
C) Painless vaginal bleeding
D) Foul-smelling vaginal discharge
Correct Answer: Heavy menstrual bleeding and abdominal distention
Rationale: Uterine leiomyomas (fibroids) are benign tumors that can cause
abdominal distention, uterine enlargement, and heavy menstrual bleeding. A
CBC may reveal iron deficiency anemia from heavy bleeding.
8. The nurse is providing teaching to a patient who is scheduled for cervical
ablation. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) "You may resume sexual intercourse immediately after the procedure."
B) "Refrain from sexual intercourse for 2-3 days after the procedure."
C) "You may use tampons for menstrual bleeding."
D) "Take tub baths to promote healing."
Correct Answer: "Refrain from sexual intercourse for 2-3 days after the
procedure."
Rationale: Postoperative teaching for cervical ablation includes refraining
from sexual intercourse for 2-3 days, not using tampons or douching,
avoiding tub baths, and reporting vaginal bleeding, foul-smelling drainage, or
fever.
9. A parent asks the nurse about the Gardasil vaccine for their child. The
nurse explains that the vaccine is recommended for:
Q&A | Med-Surg Nursing
1. The nurse is teaching a patient about breast self-examination (BSE).
According to current guidelines, when should women at average risk begin
annual screening mammograms?
A) Age 30
B) Age 35
C) Age 40
D) Age 45
Correct Answer: Age 45
Rationale: Current guidelines recommend that women at average risk begin
annual screening mammograms at age 45. They may choose to begin as
early as age 40. Clinical breast exams are no longer recommended for
routine screening.
2. A patient is diagnosed with invasive ductal carcinoma. Which finding is a
classic sign of inflammatory breast cancer?
A) A palpable, firm, non-tender mass
B) "Peau d'orange" (orange-peel appearance) of the breast skin
C) A small, movable nodule in the upper outer quadrant
D) Nipple retraction without other skin changes
Correct Answer: "Peau d'orange" (orange-peel appearance) of the breast skin
Rationale: "Peau d'orange" is a classic sign of inflammatory breast cancer,
caused by lymphatic obstruction by cancer cells. This type of breast cancer is
aggressive and often presents without a distinct palpable mass.
,3. A patient with a BRCA1 gene mutation asks about her risk for breast
cancer. The nurse's best response is:
A) "You have a moderately increased risk compared to the general
population."
B) "You have a significantly increased risk, estimated between 45–65% by
age 70."
C) "Your risk is slightly elevated, but less than that of the general
population."
D) "You are not at increased risk unless you also have a family history."
Correct Answer: "You have a significantly increased risk, estimated between
45–65% by age 70."
Rationale: BRCA1 and BRCA2 gene mutations significantly increase the risk of
breast and ovarian cancer. Women with these mutations have an estimated
45–65% risk of developing breast cancer by age 70.
4. The nurse is assessing a postmenopausal patient who reports vaginal
bleeding. Which malignancy is most commonly associated with
postmenopausal bleeding?
A) Ovarian cancer
B) Cervical cancer
C) Vaginal cancer
D) Endometrial cancer
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Rationale: Endometrial cancer typically presents with postmenopausal
bleeding. Other symptoms include watery or blood-tinged discharge and
pelvic or back pain. Any postmenopausal bleeding should be promptly
evaluated.
,5. A nurse is teaching a patient about risk factors for breast cancer. Which of
the following is a non-modifiable risk factor?
A) Obesity
B) Alcohol consumption
C) Nulliparity (no pregnancies)
D) Early menarche
Correct Answer: Early menarche
Rationale: Non-modifiable risk factors for breast cancer include increased
age, genetics (BRCA1/BRCA2 mutations), family history, late menopause, and
early menarche. Modifiable risk factors include obesity, alcohol consumption,
lack of exercise, and nulliparity.
6. A patient is scheduled for a total hysterectomy for endometrial cancer.
Which postoperative nursing intervention is a priority?
A) Encouraging early ambulation
B) Maintaining strict bed rest
C) Restricting oral fluids
D) Placing the patient in Trendelenburg position
Correct Answer: Encouraging early ambulation
Rationale: Postoperative care for a total hysterectomy includes encouraging
early ambulation to prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary
embolism. The patient should also receive DVT prophylaxis (e.g., heparin,
enoxaparin) and be monitored for infection, bleeding, and urinary retention.
, 7. A patient with uterine leiomyoma (fibroids) is being evaluated. Which
assessment finding is most consistent with this condition?
A) Postmenopausal bleeding
B) Heavy menstrual bleeding and abdominal distention
C) Painless vaginal bleeding
D) Foul-smelling vaginal discharge
Correct Answer: Heavy menstrual bleeding and abdominal distention
Rationale: Uterine leiomyomas (fibroids) are benign tumors that can cause
abdominal distention, uterine enlargement, and heavy menstrual bleeding. A
CBC may reveal iron deficiency anemia from heavy bleeding.
8. The nurse is providing teaching to a patient who is scheduled for cervical
ablation. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) "You may resume sexual intercourse immediately after the procedure."
B) "Refrain from sexual intercourse for 2-3 days after the procedure."
C) "You may use tampons for menstrual bleeding."
D) "Take tub baths to promote healing."
Correct Answer: "Refrain from sexual intercourse for 2-3 days after the
procedure."
Rationale: Postoperative teaching for cervical ablation includes refraining
from sexual intercourse for 2-3 days, not using tampons or douching,
avoiding tub baths, and reporting vaginal bleeding, foul-smelling drainage, or
fever.
9. A parent asks the nurse about the Gardasil vaccine for their child. The
nurse explains that the vaccine is recommended for:
