Chamberlain University
College of Nursing FINAL
CARING. COMPETENT. COMPASSIONATE. NR 567
NR 567 — Final Examination
ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FOR THE AGACNP
INSTITUTION Chamberlain University COURSE CODE NR 567
PROGRAM Master of Science — ACADEMIC YEAR Update
Nursing (AGACNP Track)
EXAM TITLE Final Exam — Advanced TOTAL QUESTIONS 80 Questions
Pharmacology AGACNP
COURSE TITLE Advanced Pharmacology for FORMAT Multiple Choice — Select
the AGACNP the Single Best Answer
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
▶ Select the single best answer for each question.
▶ This exam covers psychiatric pharmacology, anesthesia/sedation, cardiovascular agents, oncology,
endocrinology, anti-infectives, and chronic pain management.
▶ Formulas, mechanisms of action, drug interactions, and clinical applications are all testable content.
▶ Correct answers and rationales appear below each question for review purposes.
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① 🧠 Week 1 — Psychiatric & CNS Pharmacology Questions 1–5
1. Your patient has been taking risperidone (Risperdal) but has developed
hyperprolactinemia. Which of the following may help manage this adverse effect?
A. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
C. Promethazine (Phenergan)
D. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
CORRECT ANSWER A — Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
RATIONALE Bromocriptine is a dopamine agonist that suppresses prolactin secretion, making it the
treatment of choice for hyperprolactinemia induced by dopamine-blocking antipsychotics such as
risperidone. Haloperidol, promethazine, and chlorpromazine are all dopamine antagonists that would
worsen hyperprolactinemia.
2. A 35-year-old female tripled her daily diazepam dose due to pandemic-related anxiety
and is now found extremely lethargic and obtunded. Which pharmaceutical agent should
be ordered to treat her condition?
A. Flumazenil (Romazicon)
B. Naloxone (Narcan)
C. Divalproex sodium (Depakote)
D. Midazolam (Versed)
CORRECT ANSWER A — Flumazenil (Romazicon)
RATIONALE Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that reverses the CNS
depressant effects of benzodiazepine overdose. Naloxone reverses opioids, not benzodiazepines.
Divalproex and midazolam would further depress CNS function and worsen the presentation.
3. A 25-year-old male with bipolar disease presents with acute agitation characteristic of
mania. Non-pharmacological de-escalation has failed. Which of the following is NOT
recommended to treat this patient?
A. Haloperidol (Haldol)
B. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
C. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
D. Naltrexone (Vivitrol/ReVia)
CORRECT ANSWER D — Naltrexone (Vivitrol/ReVia)
RATIONALE Naltrexone is an opioid antagonist used in the management of opioid and alcohol
dependence — it has no role in the acute management of manic agitation. Haloperidol, olanzapine, and
aripiprazole are all antipsychotics with established evidence for managing acute agitation in the setting of
mania.
4. Which of the following is a long-acting benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety?
A. Diazepam (Valium)
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B. Alprazolam (Xanax)
C. Eszopiclone (Lunesta)
D. Zolpidem (Ambien)
CORRECT ANSWER A — Diazepam (Valium)
RATIONALE Diazepam has one of the longest half-lives among benzodiazepines (20–100 hours), making
it a long-acting agent suitable for anxiety management. Alprazolam is short-acting. Eszopiclone and
zolpidem are non-benzodiazepine hypnotics (Z-drugs), not benzodiazepines, used for insomnia.
5. Acute dystonia can develop after early initiation of which of the following agents?
A. Clozapine (Clozaril)
B. Haloperidol (Haldol)
C. Aripiprazole (Abilify)
D. Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
CORRECT ANSWER B — Haloperidol (Haldol)
RATIONALE High-potency typical antipsychotics such as haloperidol carry the highest risk of
extrapyramidal side effects including acute dystonia, which can manifest within hours of the first dose.
Clozapine actually has a very low EPS profile; aripiprazole and olanzapine are atypical agents with
comparatively lower dystonia risk.
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