FUNDAMENTALS OF NURSING COMPREHENSIVE
EXAMINATION (QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS)
FALL SERIES READINESS JULY/AUG 2026
1. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via
a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take first to verify tube placement?
A. Aspirate gastric contents and check the pH.
B. Measure the length of the external portion of the tube.
C. Inject 20 mL of air into the tube while auscultating over the
epigastrium.
D. Obtain an order for an abdominal x-ray.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The most reliable bedside method to verify initial and
ongoing placement is checking the pH of aspirated gastric fluid
(typically ≤ 5.0). Auscultation (C) is an unreliable method. Measuring
external length (B) is a secondary check. An x-ray (D) is the gold
standard for initial placement but is not the first nursing action before
each feeding.
2. A client is prescribed 1000 mL of 0.9% Normal Saline to infuse over
8 hours. The drop factor of the administration set is 15 gtt/mL. What is
the initial drip rate the nurse should set?
A. 31 gtt/min
B. 125 gtt/min
C. 21 gtt/min
,D. 50 gtt/min
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The formula is (Total Volume / Time in minutes) x Drop
factor = (1000 mL / 480 minutes) x 15 gtt/mL = 2.083 x 15 = 31.25
gtt/min. The nurse would set the rate to 31 gtt/min. Option B (125)
would be for a 1-hour infusion, C (21) results from a math error, and D
(50) results from an incorrect formula.
3. Which of the following findings in a client who is 24 hours post-
operative from abdominal surgery would indicate the onset of a
paralytic ileus and require immediate intervention?
A. Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
B. A single episode of liquid stool.
C. Complaints of constant, dull abdominal pain.
D. Passage of flatus.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A true absence of bowel sounds (silent abdomen) indicates
a cessation of intestinal motility, which is a hallmark of paralytic ileus.
Pain (C) is expected post-op. Passing flatus (D) and stool (B) are positive
signs of returning bowel function.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube attached to a closed-
chest drainage system. Which of the following actions is appropriate?
A. Coil the tubing and place it on the bed to prevent it from dragging.
B. Clamp the chest tube for 10 minutes to ambulate the client to the
bathroom.
C. Ensure the drainage system is kept below the level of the client's
,chest.
D. Strip the chest tube to maintain patency every 2 hours.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The drainage system must be kept below the chest level to
promote gravity drainage and prevent backflow of fluid into the pleural
space. Tubing should be kept straight and free of dependent loops (A).
Clamping (B) is generally avoided unless specific protocols for changing
the system are followed. Stripping (D) creates high negative pressure
and can damage tissue and is no longer recommended practice.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure. The nurse
expects to find which of the following clinical manifestations?
A. Jugular vein distention and peripheral edema.
B. Decreased central venous pressure and hypotension.
C. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases and Kussmaul respirations.
D. Diminished peripheral pulses and warm, dry skin.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Heart failure leads to fluid volume overload and venous
congestion, resulting in elevated central venous pressure, which
manifests as jugular vein distention and dependent edema. Option B is
incorrect (CVP is elevated). Option C includes Kussmaul respirations,
which are not typical. Option D describes findings seen in arterial
insufficiency, not fluid overload.
6. When assessing a client's surgical wound, the nurse notes the edges
are approximated, there is slight redness, and a small amount of
serosanguineous drainage. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
, A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
B. Swab the wound for a culture.
C. Document the findings as normal for this stage of healing.
D. Apply a warm, moist compress to promote drainage.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Serosanguineous drainage (slight pink-tinged fluid) and
mild erythema can be normal inflammatory responses in the first few
days post-op. The wound is healing by primary intention (approximated
edges). Documentation is the appropriate action. Notification (A) is not
warranted unless signs of infection (purulence, dehiscence) appear.
7. A nurse is performing a sterile dressing change. After cleansing the
wound, which direction should the nurse use to apply the sterile
dressing?
A. From the outer edge of the wound outward.
B. From the center of the wound outward.
C. From the bottom of the wound to the top.
D. From the area of most contamination to the least.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: To avoid introducing microorganisms into the wound, the
dressing should be applied from the cleanest area (the wound center) to
the least clean area (the outer edges). Option A would bring
contaminants into the wound. Option D is the opposite of best practice.
8. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse
assesses the client and notes the client is lethargic and has a
EXAMINATION (QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS)
FALL SERIES READINESS JULY/AUG 2026
1. A nurse is preparing to administer an enteral feeding to a client via
a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take first to verify tube placement?
A. Aspirate gastric contents and check the pH.
B. Measure the length of the external portion of the tube.
C. Inject 20 mL of air into the tube while auscultating over the
epigastrium.
D. Obtain an order for an abdominal x-ray.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The most reliable bedside method to verify initial and
ongoing placement is checking the pH of aspirated gastric fluid
(typically ≤ 5.0). Auscultation (C) is an unreliable method. Measuring
external length (B) is a secondary check. An x-ray (D) is the gold
standard for initial placement but is not the first nursing action before
each feeding.
2. A client is prescribed 1000 mL of 0.9% Normal Saline to infuse over
8 hours. The drop factor of the administration set is 15 gtt/mL. What is
the initial drip rate the nurse should set?
A. 31 gtt/min
B. 125 gtt/min
C. 21 gtt/min
,D. 50 gtt/min
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The formula is (Total Volume / Time in minutes) x Drop
factor = (1000 mL / 480 minutes) x 15 gtt/mL = 2.083 x 15 = 31.25
gtt/min. The nurse would set the rate to 31 gtt/min. Option B (125)
would be for a 1-hour infusion, C (21) results from a math error, and D
(50) results from an incorrect formula.
3. Which of the following findings in a client who is 24 hours post-
operative from abdominal surgery would indicate the onset of a
paralytic ileus and require immediate intervention?
A. Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
B. A single episode of liquid stool.
C. Complaints of constant, dull abdominal pain.
D. Passage of flatus.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A true absence of bowel sounds (silent abdomen) indicates
a cessation of intestinal motility, which is a hallmark of paralytic ileus.
Pain (C) is expected post-op. Passing flatus (D) and stool (B) are positive
signs of returning bowel function.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube attached to a closed-
chest drainage system. Which of the following actions is appropriate?
A. Coil the tubing and place it on the bed to prevent it from dragging.
B. Clamp the chest tube for 10 minutes to ambulate the client to the
bathroom.
C. Ensure the drainage system is kept below the level of the client's
,chest.
D. Strip the chest tube to maintain patency every 2 hours.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The drainage system must be kept below the chest level to
promote gravity drainage and prevent backflow of fluid into the pleural
space. Tubing should be kept straight and free of dependent loops (A).
Clamping (B) is generally avoided unless specific protocols for changing
the system are followed. Stripping (D) creates high negative pressure
and can damage tissue and is no longer recommended practice.
5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of heart failure. The nurse
expects to find which of the following clinical manifestations?
A. Jugular vein distention and peripheral edema.
B. Decreased central venous pressure and hypotension.
C. Bilateral crackles in the lung bases and Kussmaul respirations.
D. Diminished peripheral pulses and warm, dry skin.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Heart failure leads to fluid volume overload and venous
congestion, resulting in elevated central venous pressure, which
manifests as jugular vein distention and dependent edema. Option B is
incorrect (CVP is elevated). Option C includes Kussmaul respirations,
which are not typical. Option D describes findings seen in arterial
insufficiency, not fluid overload.
6. When assessing a client's surgical wound, the nurse notes the edges
are approximated, there is slight redness, and a small amount of
serosanguineous drainage. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
, A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
B. Swab the wound for a culture.
C. Document the findings as normal for this stage of healing.
D. Apply a warm, moist compress to promote drainage.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Serosanguineous drainage (slight pink-tinged fluid) and
mild erythema can be normal inflammatory responses in the first few
days post-op. The wound is healing by primary intention (approximated
edges). Documentation is the appropriate action. Notification (A) is not
warranted unless signs of infection (purulence, dehiscence) appear.
7. A nurse is performing a sterile dressing change. After cleansing the
wound, which direction should the nurse use to apply the sterile
dressing?
A. From the outer edge of the wound outward.
B. From the center of the wound outward.
C. From the bottom of the wound to the top.
D. From the area of most contamination to the least.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: To avoid introducing microorganisms into the wound, the
dressing should be applied from the cleanest area (the wound center) to
the least clean area (the outer edges). Option A would bring
contaminants into the wound. Option D is the opposite of best practice.
8. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. The nurse
assesses the client and notes the client is lethargic and has a
