HESI EXIT EXAM PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
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1. A nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops severe shortness of
breath, chest pain, and oxygen saturation of 82%. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Notify the healthcare provider
B. Apply oxygen and assess the client's airway and breathing
C. Obtain a blood glucose level
D. Encourage the client to cough
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Apply oxygen and assess the client's airway and breathing
RATIONALE: Airway and breathing are the highest priorities. Immediate oxygen administration
and respiratory assessment are essential for clients with severe hypoxemia.
2. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops fever, chills, and flank pain 20
minutes after the transfusion begins. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
C. Administer acetaminophen and continue the transfusion
D. Reassure the client
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
RATIONALE: These findings suggest an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The transfusion
must be stopped immediately.
3. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L
B. A client requesting pain medication for arthritis
,C. A client awaiting discharge instructions
D. A client requesting assistance to the bathroom
CORRECT ANSWER: A — A client with a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L
RATIONALE: Severe hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and requires
immediate assessment.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who suddenly develops facial drooping, slurred
speech, and right-sided weakness. Which action has the highest priority?
A. Offer oral fluids
B. Activate the stroke protocol and determine the time the client was last known well
C. Obtain a urine specimen
D. Administer pain medication
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Activate the stroke protocol and determine the time the client
was last known well
RATIONALE: Rapid stroke recognition and documentation of symptom onset are essential for
timely reperfusion therapy.
5. A client receiving IV morphine becomes difficult to arouse and has a
respiratory rate of 7 breaths/minute. Which medication should the nurse prepare
to administer?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Naloxone
RATIONALE: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression and is the antidote for
morphine overdose.
6. Which assessment finding is most consistent with left-sided heart failure?
, A. Hepatomegaly and ascites
B. Crackles, orthopnea, and dyspnea
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Peripheral edema only
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Crackles, orthopnea, and dyspnea
RATIONALE: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, leading to crackles,
dyspnea, orthopnea, and pulmonary edema.
7. Which client has the highest priority for immediate nursing intervention?
A. A client with blood pressure of 84/48 mmHg and altered mental status
B. A client requesting a blanket
C. A client with chronic knee pain rated 5/10
D. A client waiting for discharge paperwork
CORRECT ANSWER: A — A client with blood pressure of 84/48 mmHg and altered mental
status
RATIONALE: Hypotension with altered mental status indicates poor tissue perfusion and
possible shock, requiring immediate intervention.
8. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which
assessment finding is expected?
A. Bradycardia and cool skin
B. Kussmaul respirations with fruity breath odor
C. Pinpoint pupils
D. Severe hypertension
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Kussmaul respirations with fruity breath odor
RATIONALE: DKA commonly presents with deep, rapid respirations, fruity breath odor,
dehydration, and hyperglycemia.
9. Which laboratory result requires immediate reporting to the healthcare
provider?
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS
RATIONALES 2026 Q&A | INSTANT
DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A nurse is caring for a client who suddenly develops severe shortness of
breath, chest pain, and oxygen saturation of 82%. Which action should the nurse
take first?
A. Notify the healthcare provider
B. Apply oxygen and assess the client's airway and breathing
C. Obtain a blood glucose level
D. Encourage the client to cough
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Apply oxygen and assess the client's airway and breathing
RATIONALE: Airway and breathing are the highest priorities. Immediate oxygen administration
and respiratory assessment are essential for clients with severe hypoxemia.
2. A client receiving a blood transfusion develops fever, chills, and flank pain 20
minutes after the transfusion begins. What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Slow the transfusion rate
B. Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
C. Administer acetaminophen and continue the transfusion
D. Reassure the client
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Stop the transfusion and maintain IV access with normal saline
RATIONALE: These findings suggest an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. The transfusion
must be stopped immediately.
3. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L
B. A client requesting pain medication for arthritis
,C. A client awaiting discharge instructions
D. A client requesting assistance to the bathroom
CORRECT ANSWER: A — A client with a potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L
RATIONALE: Severe hyperkalemia can cause life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias and requires
immediate assessment.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who suddenly develops facial drooping, slurred
speech, and right-sided weakness. Which action has the highest priority?
A. Offer oral fluids
B. Activate the stroke protocol and determine the time the client was last known well
C. Obtain a urine specimen
D. Administer pain medication
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Activate the stroke protocol and determine the time the client
was last known well
RATIONALE: Rapid stroke recognition and documentation of symptom onset are essential for
timely reperfusion therapy.
5. A client receiving IV morphine becomes difficult to arouse and has a
respiratory rate of 7 breaths/minute. Which medication should the nurse prepare
to administer?
A. Protamine sulfate
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Atropine
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Naloxone
RATIONALE: Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression and is the antidote for
morphine overdose.
6. Which assessment finding is most consistent with left-sided heart failure?
, A. Hepatomegaly and ascites
B. Crackles, orthopnea, and dyspnea
C. Warm, flushed skin
D. Peripheral edema only
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Crackles, orthopnea, and dyspnea
RATIONALE: Left-sided heart failure causes pulmonary congestion, leading to crackles,
dyspnea, orthopnea, and pulmonary edema.
7. Which client has the highest priority for immediate nursing intervention?
A. A client with blood pressure of 84/48 mmHg and altered mental status
B. A client requesting a blanket
C. A client with chronic knee pain rated 5/10
D. A client waiting for discharge paperwork
CORRECT ANSWER: A — A client with blood pressure of 84/48 mmHg and altered mental
status
RATIONALE: Hypotension with altered mental status indicates poor tissue perfusion and
possible shock, requiring immediate intervention.
8. A nurse is caring for a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which
assessment finding is expected?
A. Bradycardia and cool skin
B. Kussmaul respirations with fruity breath odor
C. Pinpoint pupils
D. Severe hypertension
CORRECT ANSWER: B — Kussmaul respirations with fruity breath odor
RATIONALE: DKA commonly presents with deep, rapid respirations, fruity breath odor,
dehydration, and hyperglycemia.
9. Which laboratory result requires immediate reporting to the healthcare
provider?
