CIC PRACTICE TEST 2 2026 | COMPLETE
STUDY GUIDE & PRACTICE QUESTIONS
| GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED SUCCESS
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive
Rationales Included
,1. The infection preventionist (IP) on the Antimicrobial Stewardship Team is thinking of ways
that he can support efforts and add to the success of the team in decreasing antimicrobial
resistance. Some of the activities that he can do to help with the mission of the team
include:
1) Calculate multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) infection rates
2) Detect asymptomatic carriers using active surveillance cultures
3) Use molecular typing for investigating outbreaks
4) Collect environmental cultures of isolation rooms
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
1. D 1, 2, 3
Rationale: Surveillance of MDROs is critical to an antimicrobial stewardship program. IPs
monitoring microbiology isolates to detect prevalence and emergence of MDROs. IPs may
also support antimicrobial stewardship efforts in the following ways:• Calculate MDRO
incidence on the basis of clinical culture results• Calculate MDRO infection rates• Use
molecular typing for investigating outbreaks• Detect asymptomatic carriers using active
surveillance cultures
2. A classic sign of measles is:
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Stiff neck
c. Koplik spots
d. Bull's-eye rash
C Koplik spots
Rationale: Measles is a highly communicable viral illness with prodromal fever,
conjunctivitis, coryza, cough, and small spots with white or bluish-white centers on an
erythematous base on the buccal mucosa. These small spots are called Koplik spots.
,The IP has been notified that three patients with possible pneumonic plague have been
admitted to the Emergency Department. The IP recommends which of the following
strategies?a. A surgical mask worn within 3 feet of patient, door may be open
b. Negative pressure isolation room with use of N95 respirators
c. Normal ventilation, but door must remain closed and N95 respirator mask worn
d. No masks are required, but patient must be placed in private room and contacts should
be treated for exposure
A A surgical mask worn within 3 feet of patient, door may be open
Rationale: Pneumonic plague is the least common form of naturally occurring disease and
also the most severe. The mortality rate is nearly 100 percent in untreated cases and almost
60 percent even when treated. In a bioterrorism event, primary pneumonic plague is most
likely to occur because it results from the inhalation of aerosolized bacterial particles. The
incubation period for pneumonic plague is 1 to 6 days, but most commonly occurs 2 to 4
days after exposure. Clinical features for pneumonic plague are similar to symptoms for the
other forms of plague: nonspecific influenza-le symptoms such as fever, chills, body aches,
malaise, headache, and gastrointestinal distress such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and
abdominal pain. Patients typically progress from feeling well to having severe pneumonia
with cough, chest pain, shortness of breath, and stridor within 24 hours. Pneumonic plague
can be spread from person to person. Transmission occurs by respiratory droplets. Patients
with pneumonic plague require Droplet Precautions. Special air handling or negative
pressure rooms are not indicated. Droplet Precautions (in addition to Standard
Precautions) require that patients be placed in private rooms or cohorted, wearing a mask
when working within 3 feet of the patient (logistically, some hospitals may want to
implement the wearing of a mask to enter the room). Patient transport should be minimized
to essential purposes only, and if movement is necessary, the patient should wear a
surgical mask to minimize dispersal of droplets. Isolation generally can be discontinued
after 48 hours of appropriate antimicrobial therapy. However, isolation should never be
discontinued if the patient is not clinically improving. It is possible that the terrorists will
gen
, 4. Using the surgical risk index to stratify the identified infections for the previous quarter,
an IP would report which of the following case(s) as having a higher risk for developing a
surgical site infection (SSI)?
1) An 80-year-old male with poor circulation who develops a donor site infection after a
coronary artery bypass graft surgery that took 4 hours to perform
2) A 30-year-old female who has knee surgery to repair a torn anterior cruciate ligament
(ACL) after a skiing accident
3) A 90-year-old female with insulin-dependent diabetes who has hip replacement surgery
that takes 2.5 hours to per
4) A 27-year-old male with Crohn's disease who has colon resection that takes more than 4
hours to perform due to adhesions
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 4
C 3, 4
Rationale: A surgical risk index is a score used to predict a surgical patient's risk of
acquiring an SSI. The risk index score, ranging from 0 to 3, is the sum of the number of risk
factors present among the following: • A patient with an ASA physical status classification
score of 3, 4, or 5 • An operation classified as contaminated or dirty/infected • An
operation lasting longer than the duration cut point in minutes, where the duration cut
point varies by the type of operative procedure performed The higher the score by this
index, the greater is the risk for subsequent SSI (see Table PE2-1).Patient 1 has a risk index of
1 and an ASA score of 3. Patient 2 has a risk index of 0. Patient 3 has an ASA score of 3 and
an operation lasting longer than the duration cut point in minutes; her risk index would be
2. Patient 4 has a Class II procedure (contaminated) and an operation lasting longer than
the duration cut point in minutes; his risk index is 2.
STUDY GUIDE & PRACTICE QUESTIONS
| GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED SUCCESS
Updated 2026 Questions and Answers
100% Verified Exam Prep and Comprehensive
Rationales Included
,1. The infection preventionist (IP) on the Antimicrobial Stewardship Team is thinking of ways
that he can support efforts and add to the success of the team in decreasing antimicrobial
resistance. Some of the activities that he can do to help with the mission of the team
include:
1) Calculate multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) infection rates
2) Detect asymptomatic carriers using active surveillance cultures
3) Use molecular typing for investigating outbreaks
4) Collect environmental cultures of isolation rooms
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
1. D 1, 2, 3
Rationale: Surveillance of MDROs is critical to an antimicrobial stewardship program. IPs
monitoring microbiology isolates to detect prevalence and emergence of MDROs. IPs may
also support antimicrobial stewardship efforts in the following ways:• Calculate MDRO
incidence on the basis of clinical culture results• Calculate MDRO infection rates• Use
molecular typing for investigating outbreaks• Detect asymptomatic carriers using active
surveillance cultures
2. A classic sign of measles is:
a. Kaposi sarcoma
b. Stiff neck
c. Koplik spots
d. Bull's-eye rash
C Koplik spots
Rationale: Measles is a highly communicable viral illness with prodromal fever,
conjunctivitis, coryza, cough, and small spots with white or bluish-white centers on an
erythematous base on the buccal mucosa. These small spots are called Koplik spots.
,The IP has been notified that three patients with possible pneumonic plague have been
admitted to the Emergency Department. The IP recommends which of the following
strategies?a. A surgical mask worn within 3 feet of patient, door may be open
b. Negative pressure isolation room with use of N95 respirators
c. Normal ventilation, but door must remain closed and N95 respirator mask worn
d. No masks are required, but patient must be placed in private room and contacts should
be treated for exposure
A A surgical mask worn within 3 feet of patient, door may be open
Rationale: Pneumonic plague is the least common form of naturally occurring disease and
also the most severe. The mortality rate is nearly 100 percent in untreated cases and almost
60 percent even when treated. In a bioterrorism event, primary pneumonic plague is most
likely to occur because it results from the inhalation of aerosolized bacterial particles. The
incubation period for pneumonic plague is 1 to 6 days, but most commonly occurs 2 to 4
days after exposure. Clinical features for pneumonic plague are similar to symptoms for the
other forms of plague: nonspecific influenza-le symptoms such as fever, chills, body aches,
malaise, headache, and gastrointestinal distress such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and
abdominal pain. Patients typically progress from feeling well to having severe pneumonia
with cough, chest pain, shortness of breath, and stridor within 24 hours. Pneumonic plague
can be spread from person to person. Transmission occurs by respiratory droplets. Patients
with pneumonic plague require Droplet Precautions. Special air handling or negative
pressure rooms are not indicated. Droplet Precautions (in addition to Standard
Precautions) require that patients be placed in private rooms or cohorted, wearing a mask
when working within 3 feet of the patient (logistically, some hospitals may want to
implement the wearing of a mask to enter the room). Patient transport should be minimized
to essential purposes only, and if movement is necessary, the patient should wear a
surgical mask to minimize dispersal of droplets. Isolation generally can be discontinued
after 48 hours of appropriate antimicrobial therapy. However, isolation should never be
discontinued if the patient is not clinically improving. It is possible that the terrorists will
gen
, 4. Using the surgical risk index to stratify the identified infections for the previous quarter,
an IP would report which of the following case(s) as having a higher risk for developing a
surgical site infection (SSI)?
1) An 80-year-old male with poor circulation who develops a donor site infection after a
coronary artery bypass graft surgery that took 4 hours to perform
2) A 30-year-old female who has knee surgery to repair a torn anterior cruciate ligament
(ACL) after a skiing accident
3) A 90-year-old female with insulin-dependent diabetes who has hip replacement surgery
that takes 2.5 hours to per
4) A 27-year-old male with Crohn's disease who has colon resection that takes more than 4
hours to perform due to adhesions
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 4
C 3, 4
Rationale: A surgical risk index is a score used to predict a surgical patient's risk of
acquiring an SSI. The risk index score, ranging from 0 to 3, is the sum of the number of risk
factors present among the following: • A patient with an ASA physical status classification
score of 3, 4, or 5 • An operation classified as contaminated or dirty/infected • An
operation lasting longer than the duration cut point in minutes, where the duration cut
point varies by the type of operative procedure performed The higher the score by this
index, the greater is the risk for subsequent SSI (see Table PE2-1).Patient 1 has a risk index of
1 and an ASA score of 3. Patient 2 has a risk index of 0. Patient 3 has an ASA score of 3 and
an operation lasting longer than the duration cut point in minutes; her risk index would be
2. Patient 4 has a Class II procedure (contaminated) and an operation lasting longer than
the duration cut point in minutes; his risk index is 2.
