CEA Week 1 Practice Exam (Latest
Update) Questions and Verified Answers | 100%
Correct | Grade A+
Save
Terms in this set (152)
The suggested International 2.0-3.0
Normalized Ratio (INR) range in a
patient being treated for atrial Rationale
fibrillation is: Remember that for international normalized ratio,
the patient is their own normalization with an INR
1.0-2.0 of 1.0 as the standard of untreated blood, so with
4.0-5.0 an INR of 2.0, think of the patient as twice as thin
2.0-3.0 for their blood as their normal. Protime can also
3.0-4.0 be used to evaluate bleeding time for warfarin
patients, but has in general been replaced many
years ago by the INR as the standard
measurement, where PTT (partial thromboplastin
time) or Anti-Xa are more useful for evaluating
bleeding times related to Heparin therapy.
,Nonpharmacologic therapy for Avoidance of cold
Raynaud's disease include:
Rationale
Use of hot soaks Raynaud's disease is a peripheral vascular
Avoidance of cold syndrome triggered by cold exposure which
Isometric exercise causes the patient to have extremely pale/white
Ginkgo biloba vasoconstricted digits followed by a over-dilated
vasoplegic response causing purplish painful
revascularization. Avoidance of cold is the most
effective non-pharmacologic way to mitigate this
event from occurring. Pharmacologic therapy
would include the use of medications such as
calcium channel blockers.
At a follow up from a Norvasc
hospitalization, an adult patient
presents with ankle edema. Which Rationale
of the following medications is the The most common side effects of calcium
most likely cause of the edema? channel blockers include constipation and lower
extremity edema. The other options do not have
Metformin any relationship specifically with edema, in fact,
HCTZ hydrochlorothiazide specifically reduces edema
Norvasc via diuresis.
Nebivolol
,An adult patient must maintain an Broccoli
International Normalized Ratio
(INR) between 2.0 and 3.0. The Rationale
patient goes to a clinic for INR It's important to remember with warfarin
determination, and the result is 1.4. (Coumadin) therapy that it is a vitamin K
Which of the following would likely antagonist, and therefore it can be counteracted
decrease the effects of warfarin by a patient who is eating a dietary intake of
(Coumadin)? vitamin K. Leafy green vegetables such as
broccoli and spinach are notorious for increasing
Red meat vitamin K levels, and therefore inhibiting the
Grapefruit anticoagulation effect of warfarin. It's also
Red Wine important to remember that with the direct oral
Broccoli anticoagulants category, vitamin K is not affected,
and therefore no dietary restrictions are required
for this class of medications such as apixaban,
rivaroxaban, and edoxaban, which is a distinct
benefit over warfarin as noted above. Also, with
warfarin it is important to remember that the
effects are based on the free drug, not the
protein bound drug level, so patients who have
considerable protein stores will require more
warfarin than those who are emaciated or have
low protein levels chronically.
With respect to this particular question, red wine
and grapefruit do not have an effect of lowering
the INR, in fact, they will raise it by their unique
mechanisms. Grapefruit specifically causes
warfarin levels to rise through the CYP 450
system, and red wine causes the INR to increase
by thinning the blood and and red meat is not
likely to have a considerable impact, although it
might have some impact if the protein stores are
otherwise low prior to initiating the red meat in
the diet. Broccoli is the only option that has
vitamin K and should be an obvious choice for
this question.
, A 50-year-old woman with a history Congestive Heart Failure
of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and Rationale
orthopnea. On examination, she has Of the available options, the most accurate
jugular venous distention and response is congestive heart failure as it is
bilateral crackles on lung signifying both a right ventricular back up with
auscultation. What is the most likely jugular venous extension and crackles on lung
diagnosis? assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular
back up. it is possible the patient may have an
Congestive heart failure acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this,
Pulmonary embolism however, a patient has not described that, rather
Acute myocardial infarction is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
Chronic obstructive pulmonary orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid
disease overload. The only appropriate response of these
available is congestive heart failure.
Update) Questions and Verified Answers | 100%
Correct | Grade A+
Save
Terms in this set (152)
The suggested International 2.0-3.0
Normalized Ratio (INR) range in a
patient being treated for atrial Rationale
fibrillation is: Remember that for international normalized ratio,
the patient is their own normalization with an INR
1.0-2.0 of 1.0 as the standard of untreated blood, so with
4.0-5.0 an INR of 2.0, think of the patient as twice as thin
2.0-3.0 for their blood as their normal. Protime can also
3.0-4.0 be used to evaluate bleeding time for warfarin
patients, but has in general been replaced many
years ago by the INR as the standard
measurement, where PTT (partial thromboplastin
time) or Anti-Xa are more useful for evaluating
bleeding times related to Heparin therapy.
,Nonpharmacologic therapy for Avoidance of cold
Raynaud's disease include:
Rationale
Use of hot soaks Raynaud's disease is a peripheral vascular
Avoidance of cold syndrome triggered by cold exposure which
Isometric exercise causes the patient to have extremely pale/white
Ginkgo biloba vasoconstricted digits followed by a over-dilated
vasoplegic response causing purplish painful
revascularization. Avoidance of cold is the most
effective non-pharmacologic way to mitigate this
event from occurring. Pharmacologic therapy
would include the use of medications such as
calcium channel blockers.
At a follow up from a Norvasc
hospitalization, an adult patient
presents with ankle edema. Which Rationale
of the following medications is the The most common side effects of calcium
most likely cause of the edema? channel blockers include constipation and lower
extremity edema. The other options do not have
Metformin any relationship specifically with edema, in fact,
HCTZ hydrochlorothiazide specifically reduces edema
Norvasc via diuresis.
Nebivolol
,An adult patient must maintain an Broccoli
International Normalized Ratio
(INR) between 2.0 and 3.0. The Rationale
patient goes to a clinic for INR It's important to remember with warfarin
determination, and the result is 1.4. (Coumadin) therapy that it is a vitamin K
Which of the following would likely antagonist, and therefore it can be counteracted
decrease the effects of warfarin by a patient who is eating a dietary intake of
(Coumadin)? vitamin K. Leafy green vegetables such as
broccoli and spinach are notorious for increasing
Red meat vitamin K levels, and therefore inhibiting the
Grapefruit anticoagulation effect of warfarin. It's also
Red Wine important to remember that with the direct oral
Broccoli anticoagulants category, vitamin K is not affected,
and therefore no dietary restrictions are required
for this class of medications such as apixaban,
rivaroxaban, and edoxaban, which is a distinct
benefit over warfarin as noted above. Also, with
warfarin it is important to remember that the
effects are based on the free drug, not the
protein bound drug level, so patients who have
considerable protein stores will require more
warfarin than those who are emaciated or have
low protein levels chronically.
With respect to this particular question, red wine
and grapefruit do not have an effect of lowering
the INR, in fact, they will raise it by their unique
mechanisms. Grapefruit specifically causes
warfarin levels to rise through the CYP 450
system, and red wine causes the INR to increase
by thinning the blood and and red meat is not
likely to have a considerable impact, although it
might have some impact if the protein stores are
otherwise low prior to initiating the red meat in
the diet. Broccoli is the only option that has
vitamin K and should be an obvious choice for
this question.
, A 50-year-old woman with a history Congestive Heart Failure
of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and Rationale
orthopnea. On examination, she has Of the available options, the most accurate
jugular venous distention and response is congestive heart failure as it is
bilateral crackles on lung signifying both a right ventricular back up with
auscultation. What is the most likely jugular venous extension and crackles on lung
diagnosis? assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular
back up. it is possible the patient may have an
Congestive heart failure acute myocardial infarction that precipitated this,
Pulmonary embolism however, a patient has not described that, rather
Acute myocardial infarction is only describing dyspnea on exertion and
Chronic obstructive pulmonary orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid
disease overload. The only appropriate response of these
available is congestive heart failure.
