HESI LPN-ADN MOBILITY ENTRANCE EXAM
2026/2027 STUDY GUIDE | VERIFIED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LPN TO
RN BRIDGE EXAM PREP
HESI LPN-ADN MOBILITY ENTRANCE EXAM 2026/2027 STUDY GUIDE
VERIFIED PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LPN TO RN BRIDGE EXAM PREP
• Comprehensive question practice exam designed to mirror HESI LPN-ADN
testing format and difficulty level for bridge program entrance preparation
• Study tool features detailed EXPERT RATIONALE for every question, covering
all major exam domains with emphasis on safe nursing practice, clinical
decision-making, and advanced assessment techniques
QUESTION 1
A 62-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
admitted to the unit. The nurse notes the client is using pursed-lip breathing.
What is the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing in COPD management?
A) To increase the intake of oxygen through the nose
B) To maintain positive airway pressure and prevent airway collapse during
exhalation
C) To decrease carbon dioxide production in the lungs
D) To relax the diaphragm and reduce breathing effort
E) To increase the rate of respiration and improve oxygenation
Correct Answer: B) To maintain positive airway pressure and prevent
airway collapse during exhalation
EXPERT RATIONALE: Pursed-lip breathing is a technique that creates back-
pressure in the airways, maintaining positive pressure during exhalation. This
,prevents small airway collapse that commonly occurs in COPD clients during
expiration. By keeping airways open longer, it allows for more complete exhalation
of trapped air and CO2, improving ventilation efficiency. This technique does not
increase oxygen intake, decrease CO2 production, or directly relax the diaphragm—
it works by maintaining airway patency during the exhalation phase.
QUESTION 2
A nurse is assessing a client with acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which
clinical finding requires the most immediate nursing intervention?
A) Blood pressure of 132/78 mmHg
B) Chest pain unrelieved by three doses of sublingual nitroglycerin
C) Heart rate of 58 beats per minute with irregular rhythm
D) Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
E) Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
Correct Answer: B) Chest pain unrelieved by three doses of sublingual
nitroglycerin
EXPERT RATIONALE: Unrelieved chest pain in an AMI client indicates ongoing
myocardial ischemia and potential extension of the infarction. This is a medical
emergency requiring immediate physician notification and possible intervention
with IV nitroglycerin, morphine, or other acute interventions. While a heart rate of
58 with irregular rhythm is concerning and should be monitored, unrelieved chest
pain takes priority as it indicates active cardiac tissue damage. The other vital signs
are relatively stable and do not require emergent intervention.
QUESTION 3
A 45-year-old female client is prescribed metformin for newly diagnosed type
2 diabetes. What is the most important client education point the nurse
should provide?
,A) Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption
B) The medication will cure diabetes if taken consistently
C) Report signs of lactic acidosis such as abdominal pain, hyperventilation, and
unusual fatigue immediately
D) Increase protein intake to compensate for carbohydrate restrictions
E) The medication should be discontinued if blood glucose becomes normal
Correct Answer: C) Report signs of lactic acidosis such as abdominal pain,
hyperventilation, and unusual fatigue immediately
EXPERT RATIONALE: Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of
metformin, particularly in clients with renal impairment. Clients must be educated
to recognize and immediately report symptoms including abdominal pain,
hyperventilation, and unusual fatigue. Metformin should be taken with food to
reduce GI upset, does not cure diabetes, and should not be discontinued without
physician direction. While dietary modifications are important, this is not the
priority teaching point related to medication safety.
QUESTION 4
A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through
a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a
catheter-related bloodstream infection?
A) White blood cell count of 6,500 cells/mm³
B) Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C) with positive blood cultures from the central line
C) Mild erythema at the catheter insertion site
D) Elevated serum glucose of 156 mg/dL
E) Decreased platelet count of 145,000/mm³
Correct Answer: B) Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C) with positive blood cultures
from the central line
, EXPERT RATIONALE: A catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI) is confirmed
by fever accompanied by positive blood cultures drawn from the central line. This is
the diagnostic hallmark of CRBSI and requires immediate intervention including
catheter removal and antibiotic therapy. A WBC of 6,500 is normal, mild erythema
at the insertion site is common and not necessarily indicative of infection, elevated
glucose is a TPN side effect rather than an infection indicator, and mild
thrombocytopenia can occur with various conditions but is not specific to CRBSI.
QUESTION 5
A 28-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents to the prenatal
clinic. The nurse notes a blood pressure of 148/94 mmHg, 2+ proteinuria, and
the client reports a severe headache. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Schedule a follow-up appointment in 2 weeks
B) Teach the client about dietary sodium restrictions
C) Notify the physician immediately and prepare for possible hospitalization
D) Administer aspirin for the headache
E) Reassure the client that these symptoms are normal in pregnancy
Correct Answer: C) Notify the physician immediately and prepare for
possible hospitalization
EXPERT RATIONALE: The clinical presentation of elevated blood pressure
(≥140/90), proteinuria, and severe headache indicates preeclampsia with severe
features, which is a medical emergency. This constellation of findings requires
immediate physician notification and assessment for possible hospitalization to
prevent progression to eclampsia. Delaying care, treating only symptoms, or
providing false reassurance are inappropriate and potentially dangerous. The client
requires urgent evaluation and intervention to prevent maternal and fetal
complications.
QUESTION 6
2026/2027 STUDY GUIDE | VERIFIED
PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LPN TO
RN BRIDGE EXAM PREP
HESI LPN-ADN MOBILITY ENTRANCE EXAM 2026/2027 STUDY GUIDE
VERIFIED PRACTICE QUESTIONS & ANSWERS | LPN TO RN BRIDGE EXAM PREP
• Comprehensive question practice exam designed to mirror HESI LPN-ADN
testing format and difficulty level for bridge program entrance preparation
• Study tool features detailed EXPERT RATIONALE for every question, covering
all major exam domains with emphasis on safe nursing practice, clinical
decision-making, and advanced assessment techniques
QUESTION 1
A 62-year-old client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is
admitted to the unit. The nurse notes the client is using pursed-lip breathing.
What is the primary purpose of pursed-lip breathing in COPD management?
A) To increase the intake of oxygen through the nose
B) To maintain positive airway pressure and prevent airway collapse during
exhalation
C) To decrease carbon dioxide production in the lungs
D) To relax the diaphragm and reduce breathing effort
E) To increase the rate of respiration and improve oxygenation
Correct Answer: B) To maintain positive airway pressure and prevent
airway collapse during exhalation
EXPERT RATIONALE: Pursed-lip breathing is a technique that creates back-
pressure in the airways, maintaining positive pressure during exhalation. This
,prevents small airway collapse that commonly occurs in COPD clients during
expiration. By keeping airways open longer, it allows for more complete exhalation
of trapped air and CO2, improving ventilation efficiency. This technique does not
increase oxygen intake, decrease CO2 production, or directly relax the diaphragm—
it works by maintaining airway patency during the exhalation phase.
QUESTION 2
A nurse is assessing a client with acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which
clinical finding requires the most immediate nursing intervention?
A) Blood pressure of 132/78 mmHg
B) Chest pain unrelieved by three doses of sublingual nitroglycerin
C) Heart rate of 58 beats per minute with irregular rhythm
D) Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
E) Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
Correct Answer: B) Chest pain unrelieved by three doses of sublingual
nitroglycerin
EXPERT RATIONALE: Unrelieved chest pain in an AMI client indicates ongoing
myocardial ischemia and potential extension of the infarction. This is a medical
emergency requiring immediate physician notification and possible intervention
with IV nitroglycerin, morphine, or other acute interventions. While a heart rate of
58 with irregular rhythm is concerning and should be monitored, unrelieved chest
pain takes priority as it indicates active cardiac tissue damage. The other vital signs
are relatively stable and do not require emergent intervention.
QUESTION 3
A 45-year-old female client is prescribed metformin for newly diagnosed type
2 diabetes. What is the most important client education point the nurse
should provide?
,A) Take the medication on an empty stomach for better absorption
B) The medication will cure diabetes if taken consistently
C) Report signs of lactic acidosis such as abdominal pain, hyperventilation, and
unusual fatigue immediately
D) Increase protein intake to compensate for carbohydrate restrictions
E) The medication should be discontinued if blood glucose becomes normal
Correct Answer: C) Report signs of lactic acidosis such as abdominal pain,
hyperventilation, and unusual fatigue immediately
EXPERT RATIONALE: Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of
metformin, particularly in clients with renal impairment. Clients must be educated
to recognize and immediately report symptoms including abdominal pain,
hyperventilation, and unusual fatigue. Metformin should be taken with food to
reduce GI upset, does not cure diabetes, and should not be discontinued without
physician direction. While dietary modifications are important, this is not the
priority teaching point related to medication safety.
QUESTION 4
A nurse is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) through
a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a
catheter-related bloodstream infection?
A) White blood cell count of 6,500 cells/mm³
B) Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C) with positive blood cultures from the central line
C) Mild erythema at the catheter insertion site
D) Elevated serum glucose of 156 mg/dL
E) Decreased platelet count of 145,000/mm³
Correct Answer: B) Fever of 101.2°F (38.4°C) with positive blood cultures
from the central line
, EXPERT RATIONALE: A catheter-related bloodstream infection (CRBSI) is confirmed
by fever accompanied by positive blood cultures drawn from the central line. This is
the diagnostic hallmark of CRBSI and requires immediate intervention including
catheter removal and antibiotic therapy. A WBC of 6,500 is normal, mild erythema
at the insertion site is common and not necessarily indicative of infection, elevated
glucose is a TPN side effect rather than an infection indicator, and mild
thrombocytopenia can occur with various conditions but is not specific to CRBSI.
QUESTION 5
A 28-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents to the prenatal
clinic. The nurse notes a blood pressure of 148/94 mmHg, 2+ proteinuria, and
the client reports a severe headache. What is the priority nursing action?
A) Schedule a follow-up appointment in 2 weeks
B) Teach the client about dietary sodium restrictions
C) Notify the physician immediately and prepare for possible hospitalization
D) Administer aspirin for the headache
E) Reassure the client that these symptoms are normal in pregnancy
Correct Answer: C) Notify the physician immediately and prepare for
possible hospitalization
EXPERT RATIONALE: The clinical presentation of elevated blood pressure
(≥140/90), proteinuria, and severe headache indicates preeclampsia with severe
features, which is a medical emergency. This constellation of findings requires
immediate physician notification and assessment for possible hospitalization to
prevent progression to eclampsia. Delaying care, treating only symptoms, or
providing false reassurance are inappropriate and potentially dangerous. The client
requires urgent evaluation and intervention to prevent maternal and fetal
complications.
QUESTION 6
