1
NSG 3600 EXAM 2 (GALEN) NEWEST 2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK |PEDIATRIC NURSING EXAM 2
REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | ALREADY
GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. Which heart valve prevents regurgitation of blood from the pulmonary artery
into the right ventricle?
a. aortic
b. mitral
c. pulmonary
d. tricuspid
Correct Answer - C
Rationale: The pulmonary valve (semilunar) is located between the right
ventricle and the pulmonary artery. It prevents backflow of blood from the
pulmonary artery into the right ventricle during ventricular diastole.
2. A nurse suspects an infant of having advanced heart failure. Which clinical
manifestation of heart failure did the nurse assess to reach this conclusion?
a. enlarged liver
b. feeding problems
c. poor growth
d. sweating excessively
Correct Answer - A
Rationale: Hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) is a sign of systemic venous
congestion and indicates advanced heart failure. Feeding problems, poor
growth, and sweating are early signs but not as indicative of advanced
failure as hepatomegaly.
3. Which hormone is partly responsible for ensuring that the ductus arteriosus
closes normally?
1
, 2
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. prostaglandin
d. bradykinin
Correct Answer - C (or more precisely, the decrease in prostaglandins)
Rationale: The ductus arteriosus normally constricts and closes shortly after
birth due to increased oxygen tension and a decrease in circulating
prostaglandins. Prostaglandin E2 maintains ductal patency during fetal life.
4. A newborn is diagnosed with transposition of the great arteries. Which
intervention is essential prior to surgical repair?
a. Administer indomethacin.
b. Administer prostaglandin E1.
c. Administer digoxin.
d. Administer furosemide.
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 (alprostadil) is administered to keep the ductus
arteriosus patent, allowing mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood until
surgical repair can be performed.
5. Which congenital heart defect is characterized by a "boot-shaped" heart on
chest X-ray?
a. Transposition of the great arteries
b. Tetralogy of Fallot
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) characteristically shows a "boot-shaped"
or "coeur en sabot" heart on X-ray due to right ventricular hypertrophy and
the overriding aorta.
6. Which cyanotic congenital heart defect results from the aorta overriding the
ventricular septal defect and pulmonary stenosis?
2
, 3
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Truncus arteriosus
c. Ebstein anomaly
d. Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
Correct Answer - A
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot consists of four defects: pulmonary stenosis,
ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy, and overriding aorta.
7. The nurse is caring for a child with tetralogy of Fallot. The child
experiences a "tet spell" with severe cyanosis. Which intervention should the
nurse implement first?
a. Administer morphine sulfate
b. Place the child in the knee-chest position
c. Administer 100% oxygen
d. Administer propranolol
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance,
decreases right-to-left shunting, and improves pulmonary blood flow. This is
the first-line intervention for a hypercyanotic (tet) spell.
8. The nurse is assessing a newborn with suspected patent ductus arteriosus
(PDA). Which finding is expected?
a. Systolic murmur
b. Continuous "machinery" murmur
c. Diastolic murmur
d. Absence of heart sounds
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: PDA presents with a continuous, "machinery-like" murmur heard best
at the left upper sternal border.
9. Which medication is used to close a patent ductus arteriosus in a premature
infant?
a. Prostaglandin E1
3
, 4
b. Indomethacin
c. Digoxin
d. Furosemide
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: Indomethacin, a prostaglandin inhibitor, is used to close a PDA
in premature infants by constricting the ductus arteriosus.
10. A child with Kawasaki disease is being treated with IVIG. Which
complication is the nurse most concerned about?
a. Myocarditis
b. Coronary artery aneurysms
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Meningitis
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: Kawasaki disease is a vasculitis that can cause coronary artery
aneurysms. IVIG is given to reduce the risk of this complication.
11. Which clinical manifestation is consistent with Kawasaki disease?
a. Conjunctival injection, strawberry tongue, and desquamation of fingers
b. Otitis media and rhinorrhea
c. Severe headache and photophobia
d. Hepatomegaly and ascites
Correct Answer - A
Rationale: Kawasaki disease is characterized by bilateral conjunctival
injection, erythematous cracked lips with a "strawberry tongue," cervical
lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, and extremity changes (desquamation).
12. A child diagnosed with rheumatic fever is most at risk for:
a. Cardiac valvular damage
b. Renal failure
c. Neurologic deficits
d. Liver cirrhosis
Correct Answer - A
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NSG 3600 EXAM 2 (GALEN) NEWEST 2026/2027
ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK |PEDIATRIC NURSING EXAM 2
REVIEW WITH COMPLETE 300 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES | ALREADY
GRADED A+ (BRAND NEW!!)
1. Which heart valve prevents regurgitation of blood from the pulmonary artery
into the right ventricle?
a. aortic
b. mitral
c. pulmonary
d. tricuspid
Correct Answer - C
Rationale: The pulmonary valve (semilunar) is located between the right
ventricle and the pulmonary artery. It prevents backflow of blood from the
pulmonary artery into the right ventricle during ventricular diastole.
2. A nurse suspects an infant of having advanced heart failure. Which clinical
manifestation of heart failure did the nurse assess to reach this conclusion?
a. enlarged liver
b. feeding problems
c. poor growth
d. sweating excessively
Correct Answer - A
Rationale: Hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) is a sign of systemic venous
congestion and indicates advanced heart failure. Feeding problems, poor
growth, and sweating are early signs but not as indicative of advanced
failure as hepatomegaly.
3. Which hormone is partly responsible for ensuring that the ductus arteriosus
closes normally?
1
, 2
a. estrogen
b. progesterone
c. prostaglandin
d. bradykinin
Correct Answer - C (or more precisely, the decrease in prostaglandins)
Rationale: The ductus arteriosus normally constricts and closes shortly after
birth due to increased oxygen tension and a decrease in circulating
prostaglandins. Prostaglandin E2 maintains ductal patency during fetal life.
4. A newborn is diagnosed with transposition of the great arteries. Which
intervention is essential prior to surgical repair?
a. Administer indomethacin.
b. Administer prostaglandin E1.
c. Administer digoxin.
d. Administer furosemide.
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 (alprostadil) is administered to keep the ductus
arteriosus patent, allowing mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood until
surgical repair can be performed.
5. Which congenital heart defect is characterized by a "boot-shaped" heart on
chest X-ray?
a. Transposition of the great arteries
b. Tetralogy of Fallot
c. Ventricular septal defect
d. Coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) characteristically shows a "boot-shaped"
or "coeur en sabot" heart on X-ray due to right ventricular hypertrophy and
the overriding aorta.
6. Which cyanotic congenital heart defect results from the aorta overriding the
ventricular septal defect and pulmonary stenosis?
2
, 3
a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. Truncus arteriosus
c. Ebstein anomaly
d. Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
Correct Answer - A
Rationale: Tetralogy of Fallot consists of four defects: pulmonary stenosis,
ventricular septal defect, right ventricular hypertrophy, and overriding aorta.
7. The nurse is caring for a child with tetralogy of Fallot. The child
experiences a "tet spell" with severe cyanosis. Which intervention should the
nurse implement first?
a. Administer morphine sulfate
b. Place the child in the knee-chest position
c. Administer 100% oxygen
d. Administer propranolol
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance,
decreases right-to-left shunting, and improves pulmonary blood flow. This is
the first-line intervention for a hypercyanotic (tet) spell.
8. The nurse is assessing a newborn with suspected patent ductus arteriosus
(PDA). Which finding is expected?
a. Systolic murmur
b. Continuous "machinery" murmur
c. Diastolic murmur
d. Absence of heart sounds
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: PDA presents with a continuous, "machinery-like" murmur heard best
at the left upper sternal border.
9. Which medication is used to close a patent ductus arteriosus in a premature
infant?
a. Prostaglandin E1
3
, 4
b. Indomethacin
c. Digoxin
d. Furosemide
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: Indomethacin, a prostaglandin inhibitor, is used to close a PDA
in premature infants by constricting the ductus arteriosus.
10. A child with Kawasaki disease is being treated with IVIG. Which
complication is the nurse most concerned about?
a. Myocarditis
b. Coronary artery aneurysms
c. Thrombocytopenia
d. Meningitis
Correct Answer - B
Rationale: Kawasaki disease is a vasculitis that can cause coronary artery
aneurysms. IVIG is given to reduce the risk of this complication.
11. Which clinical manifestation is consistent with Kawasaki disease?
a. Conjunctival injection, strawberry tongue, and desquamation of fingers
b. Otitis media and rhinorrhea
c. Severe headache and photophobia
d. Hepatomegaly and ascites
Correct Answer - A
Rationale: Kawasaki disease is characterized by bilateral conjunctival
injection, erythematous cracked lips with a "strawberry tongue," cervical
lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, and extremity changes (desquamation).
12. A child diagnosed with rheumatic fever is most at risk for:
a. Cardiac valvular damage
b. Renal failure
c. Neurologic deficits
d. Liver cirrhosis
Correct Answer - A
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