PTCB Medication History Certificate Exam –
Comprehensive Study Guide and Practice Questions.
Section 1: Concepts/Terminology of Medication History (32 Questions)
Q1: A medication history is best defined as:
A. A list of all medications prescribed to a patient during a single hospital stay
B. Information collected by healthcare professionals by asking specific questions to the
patient or approved persons to build and maintain a patient's medication profile [CORRECT]
C. A pharmacy dispensing record of all medications filled in the last 12 months
D. A physician's written order for new prescriptions at discharge
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the medication history is defined as information collected by
healthcare professionals through specific questioning of the patient or approved persons to
build and maintain a comprehensive patient medication profile.
Q2: Which of the following best describes the process of medication reconciliation?
A. Verifying a patient's insurance coverage for all prescribed medications
B. The process of identifying the most accurate list of all medications the patient is taking by
comparing the medical record to an external list from the patient, hospital, or provider
[CORRECT]
C. Counseling patients on proper medication administration techniques
D. Documenting adverse drug reactions in the patient's permanent record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because medication reconciliation involves identifying the most accurate
list of all medications the patient is taking, including name, dosage, frequency, and route, by
comparing the medical record to an external list from the patient, hospital, or provider.
Q3: Medication adherence is defined as:
A. The extent to which patients take medications as prescribed, including getting prescriptions
filled, remembering to take them on time, and understanding directions [CORRECT]
B. The percentage of patients who complete a full course of antibiotic therapy
,C. The rate at which pharmacies successfully process insurance claims
D. The frequency with which physicians renew standing medication orders
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because medication adherence is defined as the extent to which patients
take medications as prescribed, encompassing getting prescriptions filled, remembering to
take medications on time, and understanding directions.
Q4: A patient is diagnosed with hypertension and prescribed lisinopril but never fills the
prescription at the pharmacy. This is an example of:
A. Secondary non-adherence
B. Primary non-adherence [CORRECT]
C. Medication intolerance
D. Therapeutic failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because primary non-adherence occurs when a patient does not get the
prescription filled after diagnosis, representing the initial failure to initiate prescribed therapy.
Q5: A patient fills a prescription for metformin but frequently misses doses and takes
insufficient amounts. This is best classified as:
A. Primary non-adherence
B. Medication allergy
C. Secondary non-adherence [CORRECT]
D. Drug-drug interaction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because secondary non-adherence occurs when a patient fills the
prescription but does not take it as prescribed, including insufficient doses, missing doses,
early discontinuation, or failure to maintain a medication possession rate over 80%.
Q6: A medication possession rate (MPR) of 75% indicates:
A. Excellent medication adherence
B. Secondary non-adherence [CORRECT]
, C. Primary non-adherence
D. Optimal therapeutic outcomes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a medication possession rate below 80% indicates secondary non-
adherence, as patients with adequate adherence typically maintain an MPR above 80%.
Q7: Which of the following is an example of a medication allergy rather than intolerance?
A. Nausea and diarrhea after taking erythromycin
B. Hives, respiratory problems, and facial swelling after taking penicillin [CORRECT]
C. Drowsiness after taking diphenhydramine
D. Stomach upset after taking ibuprofen on an empty stomach
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a medication allergy involves an immune response characterized
by symptoms such as hives, respiratory problems, vomiting, and swelling, distinguishing it
from intolerance, which is the inability to tolerate adverse effects without immune
involvement.
Q8: A patient reports they cannot tolerate the dizziness caused by their blood pressure
medication. This is best described as:
A. A drug allergy
B. Medication intolerance [CORRECT]
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Primary non-adherence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because medication intolerance refers to the inability to stand adverse
effects of a medication, as opposed to an allergy, which involves an immune-mediated
response.
Q9: Which of the following is NOT a common trigger for medication non-adherence?
A. Adverse drug reactions and side effects
B. Financial reasons and limited access to care
Comprehensive Study Guide and Practice Questions.
Section 1: Concepts/Terminology of Medication History (32 Questions)
Q1: A medication history is best defined as:
A. A list of all medications prescribed to a patient during a single hospital stay
B. Information collected by healthcare professionals by asking specific questions to the
patient or approved persons to build and maintain a patient's medication profile [CORRECT]
C. A pharmacy dispensing record of all medications filled in the last 12 months
D. A physician's written order for new prescriptions at discharge
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because the medication history is defined as information collected by
healthcare professionals through specific questioning of the patient or approved persons to
build and maintain a comprehensive patient medication profile.
Q2: Which of the following best describes the process of medication reconciliation?
A. Verifying a patient's insurance coverage for all prescribed medications
B. The process of identifying the most accurate list of all medications the patient is taking by
comparing the medical record to an external list from the patient, hospital, or provider
[CORRECT]
C. Counseling patients on proper medication administration techniques
D. Documenting adverse drug reactions in the patient's permanent record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because medication reconciliation involves identifying the most accurate
list of all medications the patient is taking, including name, dosage, frequency, and route, by
comparing the medical record to an external list from the patient, hospital, or provider.
Q3: Medication adherence is defined as:
A. The extent to which patients take medications as prescribed, including getting prescriptions
filled, remembering to take them on time, and understanding directions [CORRECT]
B. The percentage of patients who complete a full course of antibiotic therapy
,C. The rate at which pharmacies successfully process insurance claims
D. The frequency with which physicians renew standing medication orders
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because medication adherence is defined as the extent to which patients
take medications as prescribed, encompassing getting prescriptions filled, remembering to
take medications on time, and understanding directions.
Q4: A patient is diagnosed with hypertension and prescribed lisinopril but never fills the
prescription at the pharmacy. This is an example of:
A. Secondary non-adherence
B. Primary non-adherence [CORRECT]
C. Medication intolerance
D. Therapeutic failure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because primary non-adherence occurs when a patient does not get the
prescription filled after diagnosis, representing the initial failure to initiate prescribed therapy.
Q5: A patient fills a prescription for metformin but frequently misses doses and takes
insufficient amounts. This is best classified as:
A. Primary non-adherence
B. Medication allergy
C. Secondary non-adherence [CORRECT]
D. Drug-drug interaction
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because secondary non-adherence occurs when a patient fills the
prescription but does not take it as prescribed, including insufficient doses, missing doses,
early discontinuation, or failure to maintain a medication possession rate over 80%.
Q6: A medication possession rate (MPR) of 75% indicates:
A. Excellent medication adherence
B. Secondary non-adherence [CORRECT]
, C. Primary non-adherence
D. Optimal therapeutic outcomes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a medication possession rate below 80% indicates secondary non-
adherence, as patients with adequate adherence typically maintain an MPR above 80%.
Q7: Which of the following is an example of a medication allergy rather than intolerance?
A. Nausea and diarrhea after taking erythromycin
B. Hives, respiratory problems, and facial swelling after taking penicillin [CORRECT]
C. Drowsiness after taking diphenhydramine
D. Stomach upset after taking ibuprofen on an empty stomach
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because a medication allergy involves an immune response characterized
by symptoms such as hives, respiratory problems, vomiting, and swelling, distinguishing it
from intolerance, which is the inability to tolerate adverse effects without immune
involvement.
Q8: A patient reports they cannot tolerate the dizziness caused by their blood pressure
medication. This is best described as:
A. A drug allergy
B. Medication intolerance [CORRECT]
C. Anaphylaxis
D. Primary non-adherence
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because medication intolerance refers to the inability to stand adverse
effects of a medication, as opposed to an allergy, which involves an immune-mediated
response.
Q9: Which of the following is NOT a common trigger for medication non-adherence?
A. Adverse drug reactions and side effects
B. Financial reasons and limited access to care
