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ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR 2026 | Exit Level 3 | Proctored Exit Exam | Pass on First Attempt | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass the ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Level 3 on your first attempt with this complete 2026 proctored exit exam guide featuring verified answers. This A+ Graded resource contains comprehensive coverage of all key nursing topics including Medical-Surgical, Maternal Newborn, Nursing Care of Children, Mental Health, Pharmacology, Leadership and Management, Community Health, and Fundamentals. Each answer is verified and aligned with current ATI PN standards. Perfect for exit exam success and NCLEX readiness. With our Pass Guarantee, you can confidently achieve Exit Level 3 on your first attempt. Download your complete ATI PN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Level 3 guide instantly!

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ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR 2026
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1




ATI PN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR 2026 | Exit Level 3 |
Proctored Exit Exam | Pass on First Attempt | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded

SECTION 1: Fundamentals of Nursing (Q1-Q25)




Q1: A client with a history of orthostatic hypotension is instructed to change
positions slowly. Which physiological response is the nurse teaching the client to
prevent? A. Venous pooling in the lower extremities causing a drop in blood pressure
B. Increased cardiac output leading to hypertension C. Rapid reabsorption of fluid
into the vascular space D. Sympathetic nervous system suppression

A. Venous pooling in the lower extremities causing a drop in blood pressure
[CORRECT]

Rationale: When a client stands quickly, gravity causes blood to pool in the lower
extremities, reducing venous return and cardiac output, which leads to orthostatic
hypotension. Changing positions slowly allows the baroreceptor reflex to
compensate. Options B, C, and D do not accurately describe the physiology of
orthostatic hypotension.

Correct Answer: A




Q2: A nurse is caring for a client with Clostridioides difficile. Which personal
protective equipment (PPE) is REQUIRED when entering the room? A. Gown and
gloves B. Mask and goggles C. N95 respirator D. Standard precautions only

A. Gown and gloves [CORRECT]

Rationale: C. difficile is transmitted via the fecal-oral route and requires contact
precautions, which include gown and gloves. A mask and goggles (B) are for droplet

,2



or splash precautions. An N95 (C) is for airborne precautions. Standard precautions
alone (D) are insufficient for C. difficile.

Correct Answer: A




Q3: A nurse is assessing a client for fall risk using the Morse Fall Scale. Which finding
places the client at the HIGHEST risk for falls? A. History of falls within the last 3
months B. Use of a walker for ambulation C. Receiving one PRN medication D. Alert
and oriented to person only

A. History of falls within the last 3 months [CORRECT]

Rationale: A history of falls is the strongest predictor of future falls and carries the
highest point value on the Morse Fall Scale. While using a walker (B) and cognitive
impairment (D) increase risk, previous falls indicate established gait and balance
deficits. PRN medications (C) are a lower-risk factor unless they are sedating.

Correct Answer: A




Q4: A nurse is providing perineal care to an uncircumcised male client. Which
technique is CORRECT? A. Retract the foreskin, cleanse, and return the foreskin to its
original position B. Cleanse from the anus toward the urinary meatus C. Use an
alcohol-based solution for cleansing D. Retract the foreskin and leave it retracted
after cleansing

A. Retract the foreskin, cleanse, and return the foreskin to its original position
[CORRECT]

Rationale: The foreskin must be retracted for cleansing and then returned to its
original position to prevent paraphimosis, a painful constriction of the glans.
Cleansing should proceed from the meatus toward the anus (B is wrong). Alcohol-
based solutions (C) are irritating to mucous membranes. Leaving the foreskin
retracted (D) causes paraphimosis.

Correct Answer: A

,3




Q5: A nurse is caring for a client on contact precautions for methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which actions are appropriate? (Select All That
Apply) A. Wear a gown and gloves when entering the room B. Place the client in a
private room with the door closed C. Perform hand hygiene with soap and water
after removing gloves D. Use a dedicated stethoscope for the client E. Wear an N95
respirator when providing direct care

Correct Answers: A, C, D

Rationale: Contact precautions for MRSA require gown and gloves (A), dedicated
equipment (D), and hand hygiene with soap and water or alcohol-based sanitizer
after PPE removal (C). A private room is preferred but the door does not need to be
closed (B is for airborne precautions). An N95 (E) is unnecessary for contact
precautions.

Correct Answer: A, C, D




Q6: A client is being discharged with crutches for a fractured ankle. Which instruction
indicates the client understands the three-point gait? A. "I will bear weight on both
crutches and my unaffected leg while keeping my affected leg off the ground." B. "I
will move my affected leg and both crutches forward at the same time." C. "I will bear
partial weight on my affected leg with both crutches." D. "I will advance one crutch
and the opposite leg together."

A. "I will bear weight on both crutches and my unaffected leg while keeping my
affected leg off the ground." [CORRECT]

Rationale: The three-point gait is used when the affected leg is non-weight-bearing.
The client advances both crutches and the affected leg together, then bears weight
on the crutches and unaffected leg. Option B describes a two-point gait. Option C
describes partial weight-bearing. Option D describes a four-point or two-point gait
pattern.

Correct Answer: A

, 4




Q7: A client with dysphagia is being prepared for a meal. Which nursing action is the
PRIORITY? A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position B. Offer thin liquids to
prevent dehydration C. Feed the client quickly to reduce fatigue D. Encourage the
client to lie down after eating

A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position [CORRECT]

Rationale: High-Fowler's position (90 degrees) is essential for dysphagia
management as gravity assists with swallowing and reduces aspiration risk. Thin
liquids (B) increase aspiration risk; thickened liquids are preferred. Feeding quickly (C)
increases aspiration risk. Lying down after meals (D) promotes reflux and aspiration.

Correct Answer: A




Q8: A client is to receive 1,000 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride over 8 hours. The IV
tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL. At how many drops per minute should the
nurse set the infusion? (Round to the nearest whole number) A. 21 gtt/min B. 31
gtt/min C. 42 gtt/min D. 63 gtt/min

B. 31 gtt/min [CORRECT]

Rationale: Calculation: (1,000 mL × 15 gtt/mL) ÷ (8 hours × 60 minutes) = 15,000 ÷
480 = 31.25 gtt/min, rounded to 31 gtt/min. Option A results from using 20 gtt/mL.
Option C results from a 4-hour infusion time. Option D results from a 2-hour infusion
time.

Correct Answer: B




Q9: A nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which finding
requires IMMEDIATE nursing intervention? A. Urine output of 30 mL/hr B. Cloudy
urine with sediment C. Kinked tubing with no urine output for the last hour D. Client
reports mild discomfort at the insertion site

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