SOUTHERN NEVADA HEALTH DISTRICT’S EMT
PROTOCOLS EXAM 240 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
This extensive question bank provides 347 multiple-choice questions tailored
for the Southern Nevada Health District EMT Protocols Exam. The questions
comprehensively cover trauma triage criteria, cardiac arrest management,
pediatric and geriatric care, obstetric emergencies, medical emergencies, and
operational protocols including DNR validation and destination policies. Each
question is clinically focused on protocol adherence, with detailed rationales
explaining the correct answers based on SNHD guidelines. Key high-yield
topics include compression-to-ventilation ratios, naloxone dosing, trauma field
triage steps, ER waiting room placement criteria, and specific catchment area
transport destinations. This resource serves as an effective study tool for EMT
candidates to reinforce protocol knowledge and clinical decision-making for
exam success.
1. A patient is defined as:
A) A person who has a complaint or mechanism suggestive of potential illness or
injury
B) A person who has obvious evidence of illness or injury
C) A person identified by an informed 2nd or 3rd party caller as requiring
evaluation for potential illness or injury
D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Southern Nevada Health District protocol defines a patient as any
individual meeting any one of the three listed criteria: having a complaint or
mechanism suggestive of illness or injury, having obvious evidence of illness or
injury, or being identified by an informed second or third party as needing
evaluation .
2. Pediatric treatment protocols should be used on children who:
A) Are under 18 years of age
B) Have not yet experienced puberty
C) Weigh less than 40 kg
,D) Are under 12 years of age
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The protocols specify that pediatric treatment protocols are intended for
children who have not yet experienced puberty, with signs of puberty including
chest or underarm hair on males and any breast development in females .
3. A fall greater than how many feet places an adult patient in Step 3 of the
Trauma Field Triage Criteria?
A) 10 feet
B) 15 feet
C) 20 feet
D) 25 feet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fall of greater than 20 feet for an adult patient meets the mechanism
of injury criteria for Step 3 of the Trauma Field Triage Criteria, which indicates a
need for transport to a trauma center .
4. A fall greater than how many feet places a pediatric patient into Step 3 of the
Trauma Field Triage Criteria?
A) 5 feet
B) 10 feet
C) 15 feet
D) 20 feet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For pediatric patients, a fall of greater than 10 feet triggers Step 3 of the
Trauma Field Triage Criteria, reflecting their increased vulnerability to injury from
falls .
5. A GCS below what level places a patient in Step 1 of the Trauma Field Triage
Criteria?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of less than 13 indicates a significant
neurological deficit and meets Step 1 criteria for transport to a trauma center .
6. How much vehicle intrusion on the occupant's side needs to be present to be
considered for Step 3 of the Trauma Field Triage Criteria?
,A) 6 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 12 inches
D) 18 inches
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vehicle intrusion of 12 inches or more on the occupant's side is a
mechanism of injury criterion that triggers Step 3 of the Trauma Field Triage
Criteria, indicating transport to a trauma center .
7. How many proximal long bone fractures places a patient in Step 2 of the
Trauma Field Triage Criteria?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presence of two or more proximal long bone fractures meets
anatomic criteria for Step 2 of the Trauma Field Triage Criteria, necessitating
transport to a trauma center .
8. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for CPR in a pediatric
cardiac arrest patient?
A) 15:2
B) 30:2
C) 3:1
D) 5:1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The SNHD protocol specifies a 3:1 compression-to-ventilation ratio for
pediatric cardiac arrest patients, which is different from the adult ratio .
9. How often should compressors be switched during a pediatric cardiac arrest?
A) Every 1 minute
B) Every 2 minutes
C) Every 3 minutes
D) Every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Compressors should be switched every 2 minutes during pediatric
cardiac arrest to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue .
10. A patient in non-traumatic cardiac arrest should be ventilated at what rate?
, A) 6 breaths per minute
B) 8 breaths per minute
C) 10 breaths per minute
D) 12 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The protocol specifies a ventilation rate of 8 breaths per minute for
patients in non-traumatic cardiac arrest .
11. At what heart rate would it be appropriate to begin CPR in an unconscious and
apneic pediatric patient?
A) 40 beats per minute
B) 50 beats per minute
C) 60 beats per minute
D) 80 beats per minute
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a pediatric patient, CPR should be initiated when the heart rate is less
than 60 beats per minute with signs of poor perfusion .
12. What is the maximum single dose of intranasal naloxone for opioid overdose
per SNHD 2025 protocols?
A) 0.4 mg
B) 1 mg
C) 2 mg
D) 4 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The SNHD protocol specifies that the maximum single dose of
intranasal naloxone for opioid overdose is 2 mg .
13. What is the appropriate Narcan dosage at the EMT level?
A) 0.4 mg
B) 1 mg
C) 2 to 4 mg
D) 4 to 6 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At the EMT level, Narcan (naloxone) can be administered at a dosage of
2 to 4 mg .
14. What route can Narcan be delivered at the EMT level?
A) Intramuscular
B) Intravenous
PROTOCOLS EXAM 240 ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+
This extensive question bank provides 347 multiple-choice questions tailored
for the Southern Nevada Health District EMT Protocols Exam. The questions
comprehensively cover trauma triage criteria, cardiac arrest management,
pediatric and geriatric care, obstetric emergencies, medical emergencies, and
operational protocols including DNR validation and destination policies. Each
question is clinically focused on protocol adherence, with detailed rationales
explaining the correct answers based on SNHD guidelines. Key high-yield
topics include compression-to-ventilation ratios, naloxone dosing, trauma field
triage steps, ER waiting room placement criteria, and specific catchment area
transport destinations. This resource serves as an effective study tool for EMT
candidates to reinforce protocol knowledge and clinical decision-making for
exam success.
1. A patient is defined as:
A) A person who has a complaint or mechanism suggestive of potential illness or
injury
B) A person who has obvious evidence of illness or injury
C) A person identified by an informed 2nd or 3rd party caller as requiring
evaluation for potential illness or injury
D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Southern Nevada Health District protocol defines a patient as any
individual meeting any one of the three listed criteria: having a complaint or
mechanism suggestive of illness or injury, having obvious evidence of illness or
injury, or being identified by an informed second or third party as needing
evaluation .
2. Pediatric treatment protocols should be used on children who:
A) Are under 18 years of age
B) Have not yet experienced puberty
C) Weigh less than 40 kg
,D) Are under 12 years of age
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The protocols specify that pediatric treatment protocols are intended for
children who have not yet experienced puberty, with signs of puberty including
chest or underarm hair on males and any breast development in females .
3. A fall greater than how many feet places an adult patient in Step 3 of the
Trauma Field Triage Criteria?
A) 10 feet
B) 15 feet
C) 20 feet
D) 25 feet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A fall of greater than 20 feet for an adult patient meets the mechanism
of injury criteria for Step 3 of the Trauma Field Triage Criteria, which indicates a
need for transport to a trauma center .
4. A fall greater than how many feet places a pediatric patient into Step 3 of the
Trauma Field Triage Criteria?
A) 5 feet
B) 10 feet
C) 15 feet
D) 20 feet
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For pediatric patients, a fall of greater than 10 feet triggers Step 3 of the
Trauma Field Triage Criteria, reflecting their increased vulnerability to injury from
falls .
5. A GCS below what level places a patient in Step 1 of the Trauma Field Triage
Criteria?
A) 10
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of less than 13 indicates a significant
neurological deficit and meets Step 1 criteria for transport to a trauma center .
6. How much vehicle intrusion on the occupant's side needs to be present to be
considered for Step 3 of the Trauma Field Triage Criteria?
,A) 6 inches
B) 10 inches
C) 12 inches
D) 18 inches
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Vehicle intrusion of 12 inches or more on the occupant's side is a
mechanism of injury criterion that triggers Step 3 of the Trauma Field Triage
Criteria, indicating transport to a trauma center .
7. How many proximal long bone fractures places a patient in Step 2 of the
Trauma Field Triage Criteria?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presence of two or more proximal long bone fractures meets
anatomic criteria for Step 2 of the Trauma Field Triage Criteria, necessitating
transport to a trauma center .
8. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for CPR in a pediatric
cardiac arrest patient?
A) 15:2
B) 30:2
C) 3:1
D) 5:1
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The SNHD protocol specifies a 3:1 compression-to-ventilation ratio for
pediatric cardiac arrest patients, which is different from the adult ratio .
9. How often should compressors be switched during a pediatric cardiac arrest?
A) Every 1 minute
B) Every 2 minutes
C) Every 3 minutes
D) Every 5 minutes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Compressors should be switched every 2 minutes during pediatric
cardiac arrest to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue .
10. A patient in non-traumatic cardiac arrest should be ventilated at what rate?
, A) 6 breaths per minute
B) 8 breaths per minute
C) 10 breaths per minute
D) 12 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The protocol specifies a ventilation rate of 8 breaths per minute for
patients in non-traumatic cardiac arrest .
11. At what heart rate would it be appropriate to begin CPR in an unconscious and
apneic pediatric patient?
A) 40 beats per minute
B) 50 beats per minute
C) 60 beats per minute
D) 80 beats per minute
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In a pediatric patient, CPR should be initiated when the heart rate is less
than 60 beats per minute with signs of poor perfusion .
12. What is the maximum single dose of intranasal naloxone for opioid overdose
per SNHD 2025 protocols?
A) 0.4 mg
B) 1 mg
C) 2 mg
D) 4 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The SNHD protocol specifies that the maximum single dose of
intranasal naloxone for opioid overdose is 2 mg .
13. What is the appropriate Narcan dosage at the EMT level?
A) 0.4 mg
B) 1 mg
C) 2 to 4 mg
D) 4 to 6 mg
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: At the EMT level, Narcan (naloxone) can be administered at a dosage of
2 to 4 mg .
14. What route can Narcan be delivered at the EMT level?
A) Intramuscular
B) Intravenous
