OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) |
Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+
Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027
Med-Surg Nursing | Objective Assessment
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Fluid, Electrolyte & Acid-Base Balance Respiratory Disorders & Oxygenation
Perioperative Nursing & Surgical Care Gastrointestinal & Renal Pathophysiology
Cardiovascular Disorders & Heart Failure Endocrine Disorders & Diabetes Management
COVER PAGE - 1
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 20
,undamentals of Medical-Surgical Nursing | Q1-Q15 | NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 68-year-old male patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is admitted for
an exacerbation. During morning assessment, the nurse notes he is using accessory
muscles to breathe and his respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. His oxygen
saturation is 88% on room air. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
A. Administer a bronchodilator via nebulizer
B. Apply a non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
C. Position the patient in high-Fowler's position
D. Obtain an arterial blood gas sample
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
High-Fowler's position maximizes lung expansion and reduces work of breathing by using gravity to assist
diaphragmatic movement. While bronchodilators and oxygen are important, positioning is the immediate,
non-invasive priority that can be done instantly and supports all subsequent interventions.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1 of 20
, Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 54-year-old female patient is postoperative day 2 following abdominal
hysterectomy. The nurse notes her incision is warm, erythematous, and has purulent
drainage. Her temperature is 38.9 degrees C and WBC count is 14,200/mm3. Which
nursing action takes priority?
A. Apply a warm compress to the incision site
B. Notify the surgeon of the wound infection findings
C. Increase the patient's oral fluid intake
D. Administer the scheduled prophylactic antibiotic
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Signs of a surgical site infection with purulent drainage, erythema, and systemic indicators require
immediate physician notification for wound culture and targeted antibiotic therapy. The surgeon must
evaluate the wound to determine if incision and drainage are needed.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 72-year-old patient with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide 40 mg IV
twice daily. The nurse reviews morning laboratory values and notes a potassium level
of 3.1 mEq/L. Which assessment finding would the nurse expect to correlate with this
result?
A. Hyperactive deep tendon reflexes and tetany
B. Muscle weakness and flattened T waves on ECG
C. Widened QRS complex and peaked T waves
D. Decreased urine output and peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Hypokalemia (potassium less than 3.5 mEq/L) manifests with muscle weakness, fatigue, and characteristic
ECG changes including flattened T waves and U waves. Hyperactive reflexes and tetany indicate
hypocalcemia, while peaked T waves indicate hyperkalemia.
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 20
, Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 45-year-old male patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis. He reports severe
epigastric pain radiating to the back, rated 9/10. His serum lipase is elevated at 450
U/L. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for pain management?
A. Administer morphine sulfate 2 mg IV every 4 hours PRN
B. Place the patient in a supine position with knees extended
C. Offer a clear liquid diet to maintain nutritional status
D. Apply a heating pad to the epigastric region
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Morphine sulfate is the preferred opioid for pancreatitis pain management as it effectively manages severe
visceral pain without causing significant spasm of the sphincter of Oddi. The patient should be positioned
with knees flexed to reduce tension on the abdomen, and NPO status is typically maintained initially.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 61-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus is scheduled for a fasting blood
glucose test at 0800. The patient's regular insulin is due at 0700. What is the nurse's
best action regarding the morning insulin dose?
A. Administer the full regular insulin dose as scheduled
B. Hold the regular insulin and notify the healthcare provider
C. Administer half the regular insulin dose before the test
D. Give the insulin immediately after the blood draw
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Regular insulin should be held when a patient is NPO for a procedure or diagnostic test because there is
no carbohydrate intake to counteract the glucose-lowering effect, which could precipitate hypoglycemia.
The healthcare provider should be notified to determine if the dose should be given after the test or
adjusted.
NUR 242 Exam 1 (2026/2027) | Med-Surg Nursing | Galen College (A+ Guarantee) | PDF 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 20