CERTIFICATION EXAM FOR THE
AMERICAN BOARD OF FAMILY
MEDICINE (ABMS) | Q&A WITH
RATIONALES
PRACTICE EXAMINATION jh
SECTION 1: ACUTE CARE AND DIAGNOSIS (35%) jh jh jh jh jh jh
Question 1 jh
A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-
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day history of right upper quadrant pain, nausea, and fever. She reports the pain began after eatin
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g a fatty meal. On examination, she has tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a positive Mur
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phy's sign. Vital signs: temperature 38.2°C (100.8°F), heart rate 102 bpm, blood pressure 138/85 m
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mHg. Laboratory studies show WBC 14,500/μL, total bilirubin 2.1 mg/dL, direct bilirubin 1.4 mg/dL
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, AST 85 U/L, ALT 92 U/L, and alkaline phosphatase 320 U/L.
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What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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A) Outpatient oral antibiotics and follow-up in 48 hours
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B) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy within 24-48 hours
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C) Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) urgently
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D) Observation with intravenous fluids and bowel rest
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E) Percutaneous cholecystostomy tube placement
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Explanation: This patient presents with findings consistent with acute cholecystitis (Murphy's sig
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n, RUQ pain, fever, leukocytosis) with evidence of cholestasis (elevated bilirubin, alkaline phosphat
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ase) and transaminitis. The elevated liver enzymes and bilirubin suggest possible choledocholithia
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sis with obstruction. ERCP is indicated urgently for patients with suspected common bile duct st
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ones causing obstruction, particularly with cholangitis . While laparoscopic cholecystectomy is the
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definitive treatment for acute cholecystitis, when there is evidence of choledocholithiasis, ERCP wi
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th sphincterotomy and stone extraction should be performed first, followed by interval cholecyste
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ctomy. Outpatient management is inappropriate for this presentation. Percutaneous cholecystost
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omy is reserved for patients who are poor surgical candidates.
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,Question 2 jh
A 28-year-old man presents with a 2-
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week history of cough, fever, and night sweats. He reports a 10-
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pound unintentional weight loss over the past month. He emigrated from India 6 months ago. Ch
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est radiograph shows a right upper lobe infiltrate with cavitation. Sputum acid-
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fast bacilli (AFB) smear is positive.
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What is the most appropriate initial treatment regimen?
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A) Isoniazid and rifampin for 6 months
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B) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for 2 months, then isoniazid and rifampin for
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4 months
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C) Isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for 4 months, then isoniazid and rifampin for
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2 months
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D) Isoniazid, rifampin, and pyrazinamide for 6 months
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E) Levofloxacin, ethambutol, and pyrazinamide for 6 months
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Explanation: This patient has pulmonary tuberculosis confirmed by positive AFB smear and cha
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racteristic radiographic findings (upper lobe cavitary disease) in a patient from an endemic region
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with classic symptoms (cough, fever, night sweats, weight loss). The standard initial treatment regi
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men for drug-susceptible TB is a 4-
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drug regimen: isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for the initial 2-
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month intensive phase, followed by isoniazid and rifampin for the continuation phase (4 months f
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or most patients, extended to 7-
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9 months for cavitary disease or delayed sputum conversion) . A 2-
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month initial phase is appropriate; 4 months would be too long for the intensive phase. Empiric tre
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atment for TB should not be started without confirmed diagnosis or high clinical suspicion.
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Question 3 jh
A 65-year-
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old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes presents with acute onset of severe,
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tearing chest pain that radiates to her back. On examination, she has a blood pressure of 210/110
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mmHg in the right arm and 150/85 mmHg in the left arm. A diastolic murmur is heard at the left st
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ernal border. jh
What is the most appropriate initial imaging study?
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,A) Transthoracic echocardiogram
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B) CT angiography of the chest
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C) Chest radiograph
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D) Transesophageal echocardiogram
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E) MRI of the chest
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Explanation: This patient's presentation is highly concerning for acute aortic dissection (tearing
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chest pain radiating to back, unequal blood pressures in arms, aortic regurgitation murmur). CT a
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ngiography of the chest is the initial imaging study of choice for suspected aortic dissection in m
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ost emergency settings due to its high sensitivity and specificity (>95%), rapid acquisition, and abil
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ity to define the extent of dissection . Transesophageal echocardiography (TEE) is an alternative b
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ut is more invasive and operator-
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dependent. While TTE may detect aortic regurgitation or pericardial effusion, it has limited sensitiv
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ity for visualizing the ascending aorta. Chest radiograph may show widened mediastinum but is n
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ot diagnostic or sensitive. MRI has high accuracy but is time-
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consuming and not readily available in acute settings. jh jh jh jh jh jh jh
Question 4 jh
A 22-year-
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old woman presents with 2 days of dysuria, urinary frequency, and suprapubic pain. She reports n
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o vaginal discharge or fever. She has no known drug allergies. Urinalysis shows leukocyte esterase
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positive and nitrites positive. She is sexually active with one partner and uses condoms inconsisten
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tly.
What is the most appropriate empiric antibiotic therapy?
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A) Ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily for 7 days
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B) Nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice daily for 5 days
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C) Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole DS twice daily for 3 days
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D) Amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for 7 days
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E) Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
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Correct Answer: B jh jh
Explanation: This patient has acute uncomplicated cystitis in a young, healthy non-
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pregnant woman. Nitrofurantoin 100 mg twice daily for 5 days is recommended as first-
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line empiric therapy due to its low resistance rates, excellent efficacy, and minimal impact on gut fl
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ora . Fluoroquinolones (ciprofloxacin) should be reserved for more complicated infections or whe
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n resistance is suspected due to increasing resistance and adverse effects. TMP-
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SMX has high resistance rates (>20%) in many regions. Amoxicillin is not recommended for empiri
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, c UTIs due to high resistance. Doxycycline is not appropriate for cystitis as it does not achieve ade
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quate urinary concentrations and is used primarily for sexually transmitted infections.
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Question 5 jh
A 55-year-old man with a 30-pack-year smoking history presents with a 3-
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month history of hoarseness and a persistent sore throat. He reports occasional blood-
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tinged sputum. He has a 20- jh jh jh jh jh
pound unintentional weight loss over the past 6 months. On examination, there is a palpable left c
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ervical lymph node measuring 2 cm. Flexible laryngoscopy reveals a lesion on the left vocal cord.
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What is the most appropriate diagnostic test?
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A) CT scan of the neck
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B) MRI of the neck
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C) Biopsy of the vocal cord lesion
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D) PET-CT scan
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E) Chest radiograph
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Correct Answer: C jh jh
Explanation: This patient's presentation (hoarseness >3 weeks, smoking history, weight loss, cerv
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ical lymphadenopathy, vocal cord lesion) is concerning for laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma.
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The most appropriate diagnostic test is biopsy of the vocal cord lesion via direct laryngoscopy t
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o obtain histologic confirmation . Imaging studies (CT, MRI, PET-
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CT) are important for staging once the diagnosis is confirmed but should not replace tissue diagn
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osis. Chest radiograph is insufficient for diagnosis. The gold standard for diagnosis of laryngeal ca
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ncer is direct laryngoscopy with biopsy.
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SECTION 2: CHRONIC CARE MANAGEMENT (25%) jh jh jh jh jh
Question 6 jh
A 62-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes for 15 years presents for follow-
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up. Her medications include metformin 1000 mg twice daily, glipizide 10 mg daily, and lisinopril 2
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0 mg daily. Her current HbA1c is 8.9% (target <7.0%). She has microalbuminuria (urine albumin-
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to-creatinine ratio 120 mg/g). Her eGFR is 52 mL/min/1.73m². Blood pressure is 138/84 mmHg.
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What is the most appropriate next step in diabetes management?
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A) Increase glipizide to 20 mg daily
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B) Add sitagliptin 100 mg daily
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