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NSG 530 Exam 4 – Advanced Pathophysiology (Wilkes University) | 100 Practice Questions with Detailed Answers & Rationales | 2026 Study Guide

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NSG 530 Exam 4 – Advanced Pathophysiology (Wilkes University) | 100 Practice Questions with Detailed Answers & Rationales | 2026 Study Guide

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NSG 530 Exam 4 – Advanced
Pathophysiology (Wilkes University) |
100 Practice Questions with Detailed
Answers & Rationales | 2026 Study Guide

1. A cell is exposed to a toxin that damages mitochondrial DNA. Which
cellular function will be most immediately impaired?

A) Protein synthesis
B) ATP production
C) Lipid synthesis
D) DNA replication

,,,,answer,,,,: B
Rationale: Mitochondria are the primary site of oxidative phosphorylation and
ATP production. Damage to mitochondrial DNA impairs the electron transport
chain, reducing ATP synthesis. Cells with high energy demands (neurons, cardiac
muscle) are most vulnerable to mitochondrial dysfunction.




2. Which type of cellular adaptation involves an increase in the number of
cells in a tissue?

A) Hypertrophy
B) Hyperplasia
C) Atrophy
D) Metaplasia

,,,,,answer,,,,: B
Rationale: Hyperplasia is an increase in cell number due to increased mitotic
division. It occurs in tissues capable of mitosis (e.g., endometrium during the
menstrual cycle, liver regeneration). Hypertrophy is an increase in cell size.
Metaplasia is a change in cell type.




3. A patient with chronic hypoxia develops increased red blood cell
production. This is an example of:

A) Physiologic hypertrophy
B) Pathologic hyperplasia
C) Physiologic hyperplasia
D) Metaplasia

,,,,answer,,,,: C
Rationale: Increased erythropoietin production in response to hypoxia stimulates
bone marrow hyperplasia, increasing RBC production. This is a compensatory,
physiologic response. Pathologic hyperplasia is abnormal, such as endometrial
hyperplasia from unopposed estrogen.




4. Which cellular change is considered a reversible response to injury?

A) Necrosis
B) Apoptosis
C) Cellular swelling
D) Karyolysis

,,,,,answer,,,,: C
Rationale: Cellular swelling (hydropic change) is the earliest and most reversible
manifestation of cell injury. It results from failure of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump,
leading to intracellular water accumulation. Necrosis, apoptosis, and karyolysis
represent irreversible injury.




5. A newborn is diagnosed with Down syndrome. Which chromosomal
abnormality is responsible?

A) Trisomy 13
B) Trisomy 18
C) Trisomy 21
D) Monosomy X

,,,,answer,,,,: C
Rationale: Down syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21
(trisomy 21). This leads to characteristic physical features, intellectual disability,
and congenital abnormalities. Trisomy 13 (Patau) and Trisomy 18 (Edwards) are
associated with different syndromes.




6. A child is born with an autosomal recessive disorder. Which statement
about the parents is correct?

A) Both parents must have the disease
B) Both parents are heterozygous carriers of the mutated gene
C) One parent has the disease and one is a carrier
D) Neither parent carries the gene

, ,,,,answer,,,,: B
Rationale: In autosomal recessive inheritance, both parents must carry one copy of
the mutated gene (heterozygous carriers). The child inherits two mutated copies
(homozygous). Carriers are typically asymptomatic. The recurrence risk for each
pregnancy is 25%.




7. A nondisjunction event occurs during oogenesis. What chromosomal
abnormalities may result?

A) Point mutations only
B) Monosomy and trisomy
C) Deletions only
D) Gene amplification

,,,,answer,,,,: B
Rationale: Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to separate properly
during cell division. This can result in monosomy (missing one chromosome) or
trisomy (an extra chromosome). Examples include Turner syndrome (monosomy
X) and Down syndrome (trisomy 21).




8. Which genetic disorder is associated with progressive dementia in
adulthood?

A) Alzheimer disease
B) Huntington disease
C) Parkinson disease
D) Multiple sclerosis

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