ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical 2023 Proctored
Exam with NGN Complete Questions, Correct
Answers & Detailed Rationales Already Graded
A+ | 2026 Updated
Master your 2023 ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical Proctored Exam with this
complete study resource. Features 150 highly detailed practice questions
with full bolded answers and step-by-step Rationales. Covers critical Next
Generation NCLEX (NGN) concepts including fluid and electrolytes,
cardiovascular care, respiratory management, endocrine disorders, and
patient safety. Perfect for LPN/LVN students looking to boost clinical
judgment, pass the proctored test, and ace their nursing program.
, 1. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include?
A. Take the medication at bedtime.
B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
C. Expect an increase in blood pressure.
D. Limit intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the kidneys to excrete sodium, water, and
potassium. The client should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods (like bananas and
oranges) to prevent hypokalemia (low potassium). It should be taken in the morning to prevent
waking up at night to urinate.
2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking digxin 0.25 mg PO daily. Which of
the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing digoxin
toxicity?
A. Diarrhea and abdominal cramping.
B. Bradycardia and yellow-green visual halos.
C. Tachycardia and high blood pressure.
D. Insomnia and increased appetite.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Common signs of digoxin toxicity include bradycardia (slow heart rate), nausea,
vomiting, and visual changes such as blurred vision or yellow-green halos around lights.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving a continuous IV
heparin infusion for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory
values should the nurse report to the provider?
A. aPTT of 30 seconds.
B. Platelets of 200,000/mm³.
C. Hgb of 14 g/dL.
D. aPTT of 75 seconds.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the
normal reference range, resulting in a target aPTT of roughly 60 to 80 seconds. An aPTT of 30
seconds is too low, meaning the blood is clotting too quickly and the heparin dose needs to be
adjusted up.
, 4. A nurse is checking a client's blood pressure and notes a reading of 168/94 mm Hg.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an emergency dose of an antihypertensive.
B. Document the finding in the medical record.
C. Ask the client if they are experiencing a headache or blurred vision.
D. Re-check the blood pressure in the opposite arm.
Question 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for sublingual
nitroglycerin tablets for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.
B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely.
C. Take a tablet every 15 minutes until the chest pain stops.
D. Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing.
• Rationale: Sublingual medications must be placed under the tongue to dissolve, allowing
direct absorption into the bloodstream through the blood vessels. Swallowing or chewing
the medication prevents it from working quickly and effectively. A client should take one
tablet at the onset of chest pain and can take up to three doses, 5 minutes apart, before
seeking emergency care.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an abdominal hysterectomy.
Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr over the past 2 hours.
B. A pain rating of 5 on a scale of 0 to 10.
C. Serosanguineous drainage on the abdominal dressing.
D. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
• Rationale: A urinary output of less than 30 mL/hr indicates poor kidney blood flow or
dehydration and must be reported immediately to prevent kidney injury. Pain, mild
serosanguineous drainage, and sluggish bowel sounds are expected findings shortly after
major abdominal surgery.
Question 7
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking furosemide daily. Which of
the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
, C. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
D. Fasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL
• Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the kidneys to excrete water and
potassium. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L)
and puts the client at risk for dangerous heart rhythms. The sodium and calcium levels
listed are within normal limits.
Question 8
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Which of the following clinical findings indicates a need for immediate oxygen therapy
evaluation?
A. A productive cough with clear sputum.
B. Clubbing of the fingers.
C. An oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 84% on room air.
D. An increased anterior-posterior chest diameter (barrel chest).
• Rationale: While COPD clients naturally have lower oxygen levels, an SpO2 below 88%
requires intervention to prevent tissue hypoxia. A productive cough, finger clubbing, and
a barrel chest are chronic, expected signs of long-term COPD and do not indicate an
immediate crisis.
Question 9
A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of
the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Use an elevated toilet seat at home.
B. Cross your legs at the ankles when sitting.
C. Flex your hips at a 90-degree angle when relaxing in a chair.
D. Bend forward from the waist to put on socks and shoes.
• Rationale: Using a raised toilet seat prevents the hips from flexing more than 90
degrees, which helps prevent hip dislocation after surgery. Clients must avoid crossing
their legs or bending past 90 degrees to keep the new joint safe and in place.
Question 10
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD).
Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend limiting?
A. White rice
B. Apples
Exam with NGN Complete Questions, Correct
Answers & Detailed Rationales Already Graded
A+ | 2026 Updated
Master your 2023 ATI PN Adult Medical Surgical Proctored Exam with this
complete study resource. Features 150 highly detailed practice questions
with full bolded answers and step-by-step Rationales. Covers critical Next
Generation NCLEX (NGN) concepts including fluid and electrolytes,
cardiovascular care, respiratory management, endocrine disorders, and
patient safety. Perfect for LPN/LVN students looking to boost clinical
judgment, pass the proctored test, and ace their nursing program.
, 1. A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who has a new prescription for
furosemide 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include?
A. Take the medication at bedtime.
B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
C. Expect an increase in blood pressure.
D. Limit intake of high-fiber foods.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the kidneys to excrete sodium, water, and
potassium. The client should increase their intake of potassium-rich foods (like bananas and
oranges) to prevent hypokalemia (low potassium). It should be taken in the morning to prevent
waking up at night to urinate.
2. A nurse is collecting data from a client who is taking digxin 0.25 mg PO daily. Which of
the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing digoxin
toxicity?
A. Diarrhea and abdominal cramping.
B. Bradycardia and yellow-green visual halos.
C. Tachycardia and high blood pressure.
D. Insomnia and increased appetite.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Common signs of digoxin toxicity include bradycardia (slow heart rate), nausea,
vomiting, and visual changes such as blurred vision or yellow-green halos around lights.
3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving a continuous IV
heparin infusion for a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following laboratory
values should the nurse report to the provider?
A. aPTT of 30 seconds.
B. Platelets of 200,000/mm³.
C. Hgb of 14 g/dL.
D. aPTT of 75 seconds.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin is typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the
normal reference range, resulting in a target aPTT of roughly 60 to 80 seconds. An aPTT of 30
seconds is too low, meaning the blood is clotting too quickly and the heparin dose needs to be
adjusted up.
, 4. A nurse is checking a client's blood pressure and notes a reading of 168/94 mm Hg.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an emergency dose of an antihypertensive.
B. Document the finding in the medical record.
C. Ask the client if they are experiencing a headache or blurred vision.
D. Re-check the blood pressure in the opposite arm.
Question 5
A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for sublingual
nitroglycerin tablets for angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Swallow the tablet with a full glass of water.
B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely.
C. Take a tablet every 15 minutes until the chest pain stops.
D. Chew the tablet thoroughly before swallowing.
• Rationale: Sublingual medications must be placed under the tongue to dissolve, allowing
direct absorption into the bloodstream through the blood vessels. Swallowing or chewing
the medication prevents it from working quickly and effectively. A client should take one
tablet at the onset of chest pain and can take up to three doses, 5 minutes apart, before
seeking emergency care.
Question 6
A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an abdominal hysterectomy.
Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A. Urinary output of 20 mL/hr over the past 2 hours.
B. A pain rating of 5 on a scale of 0 to 10.
C. Serosanguineous drainage on the abdominal dressing.
D. Hypoactive bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
• Rationale: A urinary output of less than 30 mL/hr indicates poor kidney blood flow or
dehydration and must be reported immediately to prevent kidney injury. Pain, mild
serosanguineous drainage, and sluggish bowel sounds are expected findings shortly after
major abdominal surgery.
Question 7
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is taking furosemide daily. Which of
the following results should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Sodium 138 mEq/L
B. Potassium 3.1 mEq/L
, C. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
D. Fasting blood glucose 105 mg/dL
• Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the kidneys to excrete water and
potassium. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L)
and puts the client at risk for dangerous heart rhythms. The sodium and calcium levels
listed are within normal limits.
Question 8
A nurse is collecting data from a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Which of the following clinical findings indicates a need for immediate oxygen therapy
evaluation?
A. A productive cough with clear sputum.
B. Clubbing of the fingers.
C. An oxygen saturation (SpO2) of 84% on room air.
D. An increased anterior-posterior chest diameter (barrel chest).
• Rationale: While COPD clients naturally have lower oxygen levels, an SpO2 below 88%
requires intervention to prevent tissue hypoxia. A productive cough, finger clubbing, and
a barrel chest are chronic, expected signs of long-term COPD and do not indicate an
immediate crisis.
Question 9
A nurse is reinforcing discharge teaching with a client who had a total hip arthroplasty. Which of
the following instructions should the nurse include?
A. Use an elevated toilet seat at home.
B. Cross your legs at the ankles when sitting.
C. Flex your hips at a 90-degree angle when relaxing in a chair.
D. Bend forward from the waist to put on socks and shoes.
• Rationale: Using a raised toilet seat prevents the hips from flexing more than 90
degrees, which helps prevent hip dislocation after surgery. Clients must avoid crossing
their legs or bending past 90 degrees to keep the new joint safe and in place.
Question 10
A nurse is reinforcing dietary teaching with a client who has chronic kidney disease (CKD).
Which of the following food choices should the nurse recommend limiting?
A. White rice
B. Apples
