UR 2092 / NUR2092 Health
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Assessment Exam 2 Quiz Bank
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Health
Assessment Exam 2 | Verified Q&A |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
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PART A – MULTIPLE CHOICE (Q1‑60)
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Q1 (Physical assessment techniques – percussion): A nurse is percussing the abdomen of a
healthy adult patient. Which percussion sound is expected over the gastric air bubble?
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Dullness
D. Flatness
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: Tympany is a high-pitched, drum-like sound heard over air-filled structures such as
the stomach and intestines, as described in Jarvis's Physical Examination and Health
Assessment. The gastric air bubble contains air, making tympany the expected percussion note.
Resonance (A) is the normal sound heard over healthy lung tissue, not hollow organs. Dullness
(C) indicates solid organs or fluid, while flatness (D) is heard over dense structures like bone or
muscle. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Always percuss from areas of tympany toward
areas of dullness to map organ boundaries.
Q2 (Physical assessment techniques – auscultation): When auscultating for low-pitched heart
sounds such as S3 and S4, which part of the stethoscope should the nurse use?
A. Diaphragm, pressed firmly against the skin
B. Bell, applied lightly to the skin
C. Diaphragm, applied lightly to the skin
D. Bell, pressed firmly against the skin
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: The bell of the stethoscope is designed to detect low-frequency sounds such as S3,
S4, and murmurs when applied lightly to the skin, per ATI Health Assessment guidelines.
Pressing the bell firmly (D) stretches the skin and converts the bell into a diaphragm, filtering out
,low-pitched sounds. The diaphragm (A, C) is used for high-pitched sounds like S1, S2, breath
sounds, and bowel sounds. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Remember "Bell = Low,
Light touch" – the bell picks up low-pitched sounds with light pressure.
Q3 (Skin, hair, nails – lesions): A patient presents with a raised, solid lesion measuring 0.8 cm in
diameter on the forearm. The nurse documents this as which type of primary skin lesion?
A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Nodule
D. Vesicle
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: A papule is defined as a solid, elevated lesion less than 1 cm in diameter, according
to standard dermatology and health assessment terminology (Jarvis, Weber). A macule (A) is
flat and non-palpable, a nodule (C) is greater than 1 cm and extends deeper into the dermis,
and a vesicle (D) is a fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students:
Use the "solid vs. fluid-filled" and "size cutoff of 1 cm" framework to classify primary lesions
accurately.
Q4 (Skin, hair, nails – edema): A nurse assesses a patient's lower extremities and notes a 6-mm
deep pit that remains for 45 seconds after finger pressure is removed. How should this edema
be documented?
A. 1+ pitting edema
B. 2+ pitting edema
C. 3+ pitting edema
D. 4+ pitting edema
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: 3+ pitting edema is characterized by a deep pit (approximately 6 mm) that persists for
10 seconds to 1 minute, per standard edema grading scales used in nursing assessment. 1+
edema (A) shows a barely detectable 2-mm pit that rebounds immediately, 2+ edema (B) shows
a 4-mm pit that rebounds in less than 15 seconds, and 4+ edema (D) shows an 8-mm pit that
persists for more than 2 minutes. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Remember the
progression: 1+ (2mm), 2+ (4mm), 3+ (6mm), 4+ (8mm) – each grade increases by 2 mm.
Q5 (Skin, hair, nails – nail assessment): Clubbing of the fingernails is most commonly
associated with which underlying condition?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Chronic hypoxia
C. Liver cirrhosis
D. Hyperthyroidism
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: Clubbing of the nails results from chronic tissue hypoxia and is classically associated
with chronic lung diseases (COPD, lung cancer, cystic fibrosis) and cyanotic heart disease, as
described in health assessment texts. Iron deficiency anemia (A) causes koilonychia
(spoon-shaped nails), liver cirrhosis (C) causes Terry's nails (white nails with distal band), and
hyperthyroidism (D) may cause onycholysis (Plummer's nails). Clinical pearl for Rasmussen
students: Clubbing develops over years, not acutely; the Lovibond angle (angle between nail
plate and proximal nail fold) exceeds 180 degrees in clubbing.
, 6 (Head and neck – thyroid): During thyroid palpation, the nurse asks the patient to swallow
Q
while feeling the gland. What is the purpose of this maneuver?
A. To assess for thyroid tenderness
B. To distinguish the thyroid from other neck structures
C. To evaluate thyroid consistency
D. To check for thyroid bruits
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: Having the patient swallow causes the thyroid gland to rise and fall because it is
attached to the trachea by fascial connections, allowing the examiner to distinguish it from
lymph nodes and other neck structures that do not move with swallowing. Tenderness (A) is
assessed by gentle palpation, consistency (C) is evaluated by direct palpation of the gland, and
bruits (D) are auscultated, not palpated. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: If a neck mass
moves upward with swallowing, it is likely thyroid in origin; if it moves with tongue protrusion, it
may be a thyroglossal duct cyst.
Q7 (Head and neck – lymph nodes): A nurse is assessing the lymph nodes of the head and
neck. Which lymph node group is located just below the mandible?
A. Preauricular
B. Tonsillar
C. Submandibular
D. Submental
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: The submandibular lymph nodes are located beneath the body of the mandible and
drain the cheeks, side of the nose, upper lip, lower lip, and gums, per standard anatomical
landmarks for health assessment. Preauricular nodes (A) are anterior to the ear, tonsillar nodes
(B) are below the angle of the mandible near the tonsillar fossa, and submental nodes (D) are in
the midline under the chin. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Use a systematic approach –
palpate head and neck nodes in order: preauricular, posterior auricular, occipital, tonsillar,
submandibular, submental, superficial cervical, posterior cervical, deep cervical, supraclavicular.
Q8 (Head and neck – carotid artery): A nurse auscultates the carotid artery and hears a blowing
sound. This finding is documented as:
A. A venous hum
B. A carotid bruit
C. A thyroid bruit
D. Normal carotid flow
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: A carotid bruit is a blowing, swishing sound caused by turbulent blood flow through a
narrowed carotid artery, indicating possible atherosclerotic disease; it requires further evaluation
per AHA guidelines. A venous hum (A) is a continuous sound heard over the internal jugular
vein, a thyroid bruit (C) is heard over the thyroid gland in hyperthyroidism, and normal carotid
flow (D) is silent on auscultation. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Always auscultate the
carotid arteries before palpating them; palpation can dislodge plaque and cause embolization in
patients with significant stenosis.
Q9 (Eyes – visual acuity): A patient reads the 20/40 line on the Snellen chart with the right eye.
How should the nurse interpret this finding?
N
Assessment Exam 2 Quiz Bank
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Health
Assessment Exam 2 | Verified Q&A |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
=======================================================================
=
========
PART A – MULTIPLE CHOICE (Q1‑60)
========================================================================
========
Q1 (Physical assessment techniques – percussion): A nurse is percussing the abdomen of a
healthy adult patient. Which percussion sound is expected over the gastric air bubble?
A. Resonance
B. Tympany
C. Dullness
D. Flatness
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: Tympany is a high-pitched, drum-like sound heard over air-filled structures such as
the stomach and intestines, as described in Jarvis's Physical Examination and Health
Assessment. The gastric air bubble contains air, making tympany the expected percussion note.
Resonance (A) is the normal sound heard over healthy lung tissue, not hollow organs. Dullness
(C) indicates solid organs or fluid, while flatness (D) is heard over dense structures like bone or
muscle. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Always percuss from areas of tympany toward
areas of dullness to map organ boundaries.
Q2 (Physical assessment techniques – auscultation): When auscultating for low-pitched heart
sounds such as S3 and S4, which part of the stethoscope should the nurse use?
A. Diaphragm, pressed firmly against the skin
B. Bell, applied lightly to the skin
C. Diaphragm, applied lightly to the skin
D. Bell, pressed firmly against the skin
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: The bell of the stethoscope is designed to detect low-frequency sounds such as S3,
S4, and murmurs when applied lightly to the skin, per ATI Health Assessment guidelines.
Pressing the bell firmly (D) stretches the skin and converts the bell into a diaphragm, filtering out
,low-pitched sounds. The diaphragm (A, C) is used for high-pitched sounds like S1, S2, breath
sounds, and bowel sounds. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Remember "Bell = Low,
Light touch" – the bell picks up low-pitched sounds with light pressure.
Q3 (Skin, hair, nails – lesions): A patient presents with a raised, solid lesion measuring 0.8 cm in
diameter on the forearm. The nurse documents this as which type of primary skin lesion?
A. Macule
B. Papule
C. Nodule
D. Vesicle
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: A papule is defined as a solid, elevated lesion less than 1 cm in diameter, according
to standard dermatology and health assessment terminology (Jarvis, Weber). A macule (A) is
flat and non-palpable, a nodule (C) is greater than 1 cm and extends deeper into the dermis,
and a vesicle (D) is a fluid-filled lesion less than 1 cm. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students:
Use the "solid vs. fluid-filled" and "size cutoff of 1 cm" framework to classify primary lesions
accurately.
Q4 (Skin, hair, nails – edema): A nurse assesses a patient's lower extremities and notes a 6-mm
deep pit that remains for 45 seconds after finger pressure is removed. How should this edema
be documented?
A. 1+ pitting edema
B. 2+ pitting edema
C. 3+ pitting edema
D. 4+ pitting edema
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: 3+ pitting edema is characterized by a deep pit (approximately 6 mm) that persists for
10 seconds to 1 minute, per standard edema grading scales used in nursing assessment. 1+
edema (A) shows a barely detectable 2-mm pit that rebounds immediately, 2+ edema (B) shows
a 4-mm pit that rebounds in less than 15 seconds, and 4+ edema (D) shows an 8-mm pit that
persists for more than 2 minutes. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Remember the
progression: 1+ (2mm), 2+ (4mm), 3+ (6mm), 4+ (8mm) – each grade increases by 2 mm.
Q5 (Skin, hair, nails – nail assessment): Clubbing of the fingernails is most commonly
associated with which underlying condition?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Chronic hypoxia
C. Liver cirrhosis
D. Hyperthyroidism
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: Clubbing of the nails results from chronic tissue hypoxia and is classically associated
with chronic lung diseases (COPD, lung cancer, cystic fibrosis) and cyanotic heart disease, as
described in health assessment texts. Iron deficiency anemia (A) causes koilonychia
(spoon-shaped nails), liver cirrhosis (C) causes Terry's nails (white nails with distal band), and
hyperthyroidism (D) may cause onycholysis (Plummer's nails). Clinical pearl for Rasmussen
students: Clubbing develops over years, not acutely; the Lovibond angle (angle between nail
plate and proximal nail fold) exceeds 180 degrees in clubbing.
, 6 (Head and neck – thyroid): During thyroid palpation, the nurse asks the patient to swallow
Q
while feeling the gland. What is the purpose of this maneuver?
A. To assess for thyroid tenderness
B. To distinguish the thyroid from other neck structures
C. To evaluate thyroid consistency
D. To check for thyroid bruits
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: Having the patient swallow causes the thyroid gland to rise and fall because it is
attached to the trachea by fascial connections, allowing the examiner to distinguish it from
lymph nodes and other neck structures that do not move with swallowing. Tenderness (A) is
assessed by gentle palpation, consistency (C) is evaluated by direct palpation of the gland, and
bruits (D) are auscultated, not palpated. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: If a neck mass
moves upward with swallowing, it is likely thyroid in origin; if it moves with tongue protrusion, it
may be a thyroglossal duct cyst.
Q7 (Head and neck – lymph nodes): A nurse is assessing the lymph nodes of the head and
neck. Which lymph node group is located just below the mandible?
A. Preauricular
B. Tonsillar
C. Submandibular
D. Submental
[CORRECT] C
Rationale: The submandibular lymph nodes are located beneath the body of the mandible and
drain the cheeks, side of the nose, upper lip, lower lip, and gums, per standard anatomical
landmarks for health assessment. Preauricular nodes (A) are anterior to the ear, tonsillar nodes
(B) are below the angle of the mandible near the tonsillar fossa, and submental nodes (D) are in
the midline under the chin. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Use a systematic approach –
palpate head and neck nodes in order: preauricular, posterior auricular, occipital, tonsillar,
submandibular, submental, superficial cervical, posterior cervical, deep cervical, supraclavicular.
Q8 (Head and neck – carotid artery): A nurse auscultates the carotid artery and hears a blowing
sound. This finding is documented as:
A. A venous hum
B. A carotid bruit
C. A thyroid bruit
D. Normal carotid flow
[CORRECT] B
Rationale: A carotid bruit is a blowing, swishing sound caused by turbulent blood flow through a
narrowed carotid artery, indicating possible atherosclerotic disease; it requires further evaluation
per AHA guidelines. A venous hum (A) is a continuous sound heard over the internal jugular
vein, a thyroid bruit (C) is heard over the thyroid gland in hyperthyroidism, and normal carotid
flow (D) is silent on auscultation. Clinical pearl for Rasmussen students: Always auscultate the
carotid arteries before palpating them; palpation can dislodge plaque and cause embolization in
patients with significant stenosis.
Q9 (Eyes – visual acuity): A patient reads the 20/40 line on the Snellen chart with the right eye.
How should the nurse interpret this finding?
