WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026,
OA PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW WGU
D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026, OA
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
: Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the attected chromosome has the illness, it will be
expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause?: Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of
intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?: Chorionic villus sampling
(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are
performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates
amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is
performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene?: Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion.
This term describes the cry often heard from a baby attected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as
a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?: The disease can be trans-
mitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unattected X to a daughter or son.
Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can
give to a female) to cancel it out.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?: Relative risk is
a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?: Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics attect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually
provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.: The imprinted gene is the silent gene of
a gene pair.
, WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026,
OA PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW WGU
D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026, OA
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma-
tion and wound healing?: The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?: -
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
11. What Phagocytes bacteria?: Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?: Helper T cells
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity
when considering the antigen?: Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility?: The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?: An imme-
diate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections?: Infection with a fungus is
called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm
and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection?: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody
testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative
test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins?: Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer?: The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop?: Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining
cancer.
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.: UV light causes
, WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026,
OA PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW WGU
D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026, OA
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs
that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
22. Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing?: Exer-
cise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
23. Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pres-
sure control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false: TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may result.
24. One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
True or false: True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding and compliance.
25. What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy?: Low literacy often leads to perceived
noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all
instructions is critical for understanding.
26. Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health
histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation?: Those
who have a family history of genetic disorders
27. Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of
obesity.
What do these genes influence?: Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that genetic mutations
may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
28. Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximate-
ly 1 in 600 black Americans an example of?: Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a
population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease progression.
29. What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome?: -
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this chromosome
is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
, WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026,
OA PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW WGU
D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026, OA
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW
30. Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process?: Prevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can heal.
31. Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions
when considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils: Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils
demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
32. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural ex-
posure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?: Active-acquired
immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and develops
the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
33. Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies?: The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them
genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more
IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight
the war.
34. A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccina-
tions.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the pre-
sentation?: Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial ettects of a vaccine may diminish over time, and
boosters improve protection against disease.
35. Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?: Pathogenicity refers
to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
36. What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome?: DNA deletion of chromo-
some 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like cry
37. What are the 3 layers of human defense?: Physical, Mechanical, biochemical barriers
OA PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW WGU
D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026, OA
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females?-
: Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the attected chromosome has the illness, it will be
expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known
cause?: Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of
intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?: Chorionic villus sampling
(CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are
performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates
amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is
performed on the embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having
one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome
with a missing gene?: Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion.
This term describes the cry often heard from a baby attected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as
a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?: The disease can be trans-
mitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unattected X to a daughter or son.
Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can
give to a female) to cancel it out.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the
entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population?: Relative risk is
a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on?: Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics attect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually
provides the most thorough and accurate assessment.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair.: The imprinted gene is the silent gene of
a gene pair.
, WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026,
OA PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW WGU
D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026, OA
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflamma-
tion and wound healing?: The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion?: -
Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
11. What Phagocytes bacteria?: Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?: Helper T cells
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity
when considering the antigen?: Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize
something foreign.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered,
causing an ABO incompatibility?: The complement pathway is activated in response to blood
incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis?: An imme-
diate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections?: Infection with a fungus is
called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm
and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can
detect infection?: Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody
testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative
test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins?: Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth.
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for
developing colon cancer?: The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have
demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer.
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40
years most likely to develop?: Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining
cancer.
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength.: UV light causes
, WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026,
OA PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW WGU
D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026, OA
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW
basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs
that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
22. Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing?: Exer-
cise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
23. Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pres-
sure control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false: TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may result.
24. One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to
incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood
through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's
literacy level.
True or false: True
Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding and compliance.
25. What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy?: Low literacy often leads to perceived
noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all
instructions is critical for understanding.
26. Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health
histories.
Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation?: Those
who have a family history of genetic disorders
27. Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of
obesity.
What do these genes influence?: Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that genetic mutations
may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite.
28. Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximate-
ly 1 in 600 black Americans an example of?: Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a
population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease progression.
29. What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome?: -
Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this chromosome
is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic.
, WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026,
OA PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW WGU
D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY, WESTERN GOVERNORS UNIVERSITY, 2025–2026, OA
PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED ANSWERS AND READINESS REVIEW
30. Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process?: Prevent infection of the
injured tissue
The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can heal.
31. Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions
when considering white blood cell differentials?
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Basophils
Eosinophils: Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils
demonstrates an acute inflammatory response.
32. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural ex-
posure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen?: Active-acquired
immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and develops
the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine.
33. Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically
predisposed to develop allergies?: The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them
genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more
IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight
the war.
34. A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccina-
tions.
Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the pre-
sentation?: Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection.
Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial ettects of a vaccine may diminish over time, and
boosters improve protection against disease.
35. Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease?: Pathogenicity refers
to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.
36. What are signs and symptoms of Cri du Chrat Syndrome?: DNA deletion of chromo-
some 5. low birth weight, mental retardation, microencephaly, and cat like cry
37. What are the 3 layers of human defense?: Physical, Mechanical, biochemical barriers
