Speech-Language Pathology (SLP)
Praxis Certification Exam 2026/2027
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Question 1:
A speech-language pathologist is analyzing vowel production using acoustic measures.
Which formant characteristic is most associated with high vowels?
A. High first formant (F1) frequency
B. Low second formant (F2) frequency
C. Low first formant (F1) frequency
D. High third formant (F3) frequency
Correct Answer: C. Low first formant (F1) frequency
Rationale:
High vowels are characterized by a raised tongue position, which reduces the
pharyngeal space and lowers the first formant frequency (F1). F1 is inversely related
to tongue height; therefore, as tongue height increases (as in high vowels), F1
decreases. Options A and D are incorrect because higher F1 and F3 values are not
primary markers of vowel height. Option B is unrelated to vowel height and instead
reflects tongue advancement (F2), not height.
Question 2:
A 65-year-old patient presents with suspected apraxia of speech. Which task best
assesses verbal apraxia?
A. Naming objects in pictures
B. Repeating words of increasing syllabic length
C. Following multi-step commands
D. Reading single words aloud
Correct Answer: B. Repeating words of increasing syllabic length
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Rationale:
Apraxia of speech is characterized by impaired motor planning for speech, especially
under increasing linguistic complexity. Repetition tasks of increasing length reveal
breakdowns in sequencing and motor programming. Naming and reading tasks
primarily assess lexical access and decoding, while command following assesses
receptive language, not motor speech planning.
Question 3:
A child with Down syndrome presents with oropharyngeal dysphagia. The most likely
underlying cause is:
A. Structural obstruction
B. Hypotonia
C. Hyperreflexia
D. Vocal fold paralysis
Correct Answer: B. Hypotonia
Rationale:
Hypotonia is a hallmark feature of Down syndrome and significantly affects oral
motor control, leading to inefficient chewing and swallowing. Structural obstruction
and vocal fold paralysis are not primary etiologies in Down syndrome dysphagia.
Hyperreflexia is not typically associated with pediatric dysphagia in this population.
Question 4:
Which feeding recommendation is most appropriate for an infant with cleft lip and
palate?
A. Thickened liquids via spoon only
B. Bottle feeding with modified nipple
C. Syringe feeding exclusively
D. Breastfeeding without modification
Correct Answer: B. Bottle feeding with modified nipple
Rationale:
A modified nipple allows controlled flow and improved suction compensation,
supporting adequate nutrition. Syringe feeding lacks pacing control, and breastfeeding
without modification is often ineffective due to poor intraoral pressure. Spoon feeding
is developmentally inappropriate for infants requiring sustained nutrition.
Question 5:
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The Shaker exercise primarily improves:
A. Tongue base retraction
B. Upper esophageal sphincter opening
C. Velopharyngeal closure
D. Laryngeal elevation timing only
Correct Answer: B. Upper esophageal sphincter opening
Rationale:
The Shaker exercise strengthens suprahyoid muscles, increasing both duration and
diameter of upper esophageal sphincter (UES) opening, improving bolus passage. It is
not primarily designed for velopharyngeal closure or tongue base retraction, though
these may be indirectly affected.
Question 6:
Which consonants are typically mastered by age 3?
A. /r/ and /θ/
B. /p/ and /b/
C. /ʒ/ and /ð/
D. /l/ and /s/
Correct Answer: B. /p/ and /b/
Rationale:
Bilabial stops /p/ and /b/ are among the earliest developing consonants due to simple
articulatory requirements. Later-developing sounds such as /r/, /θ/, and /ʒ/ require
more complex tongue placement and motor control.
Question 7:
Before selecting an AAC device for a child with cerebral palsy, the most important
factor to assess is:
A. Cognitive level
B. Trunk stability
C. Vision acuity
D. Language comprehension
Correct Answer: B. Trunk stability
Rationale:
Trunk stability directly affects head control, upper limb function, and access method
selection (e.g., switch vs. direct selection). Without stable posture, accurate AAC
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access is compromised. Cognitive and language abilities are important but secondary
to physical access.
Question 8:
A student achieves 75% accuracy on /r/ production but does not reach the 90% goal
after a full year. According to ASHA ethics, the SLP should:
A. Continue therapy indefinitely
B. Discontinue only after parent approval
C. Discontinue when benefit is no longer reasonably expected
D. Refer immediately for intensive private therapy
Correct Answer: C. Discontinue when benefit is no longer reasonably expected
Rationale:
ASHA ethics require clinicians to provide services only when meaningful benefit can
reasonably be expected. If progress plateaus despite appropriate intervention,
continuation may not be justified. Parental approval alone does not determine service
necessity.
Question 9:
Which is the correct order of phoneme acquisition?
/p/, /θ/, /k/, /ʒ/
A. /θ/ → /p/ → /k/ → /ʒ/
B. /p/ → /k/ → /θ/ → /ʒ/
C. /k/ → /p/ → /ʒ/ → /θ/
D. /ʒ/ → /k/ → /p/ → /θ/
Correct Answer: B. /p/ → /k/ → /θ/ → /ʒ/
Rationale:
Early developing sounds such as /p/ emerge first, followed by velars like /k/.
Interdental fricatives such as /θ/ are later, and /ʒ/ is among the latest acquired due to
articulatory complexity.
Question 10:
Which factor most strongly influences communication prognosis after stroke?
A. Age
B. Severity of stroke