NSG124 / NSG 124 FINAL COMPREHENSIVE EXAM
| Latest Update |Newly Released
Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Graded A+
Guaranteed Pass | 100% Correct - Herzing University
Q1: A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin). Prior to
administration, the nurse assesses the patient's apical pulse and notes a rate of 52 beats per
minute. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer the dose as prescribed because the rate is within the normal resting range.
B. Hold the dos e, notify the pres criber, and monitor for s igns of digoxin toxicity.
C. Administer half of the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 1 hour.
D. Give the dose with a full glass of water to encourage absorption.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because digoxin decreases the heart rate, and a pulse below 60 bpm (or
specific parameters set by the provider) is a sign of potential toxicity or bradycardia that
requires holding the medication and notifying the provider.
Q2: A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is prescribed insulin glargine (Lantus). Which
statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding this medication?
A. "I will inject this medication into the fatty tissue of my abdomen."
B. "This insulin provides a steady level of insulin over 24 hours."
C. "I s hould mix this ins ulin with my regular ins ulin before drawing it up."
D. "I need to rotate my injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy."
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Correct because insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that should never be mixed
with other insulins in the same syringe, as it alters the pharmacokinetic profile and stability of
the solution.
Q3: A patient is taking lisinopril (Prinivil) for hypertension. Which laboratory result should the
nurse monitor periodically while the patient is on this medication?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potas s ium
C. White blood cell count
D. Serum calcium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because ACE inhibitors like lisinopril inhibit the excretion of potassium,
which can lead to hyperkalemia; therefore, monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent
life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
Q4: A patient is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. What is a priority nursing
intervention for this patient?
A. Encouraging intake of high-calcium foods.
B. Administering the medication with milk to decrease GI upset.
C. ins tructing the patient to report gum bleeding or overgrowth.
D. Teaching the patient to avoid hard candy and ice chips.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because phenytoin commonly causes gingival hyperplasia (gum
overgrowth); reporting bleeding or swelling allows for early dental intervention to prevent
periodontal disease.
,Q5: Which medication is classified as a "rescue inhaler" for the treatment of acute asthma
attacks?
A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
C. Albuterol (ProAir)
D. Montelukast (Singulair)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) that rapidly relaxes
bronchial smooth muscle, providing immediate relief during an acute bronchospasm.
Q6: A patient is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse teaches the patient about dietary
interactions. Which food should the patient consume consistently rather than avoiding?
A. Grapefruit juice
B. Leafy green vegetables
C. Aged cheeses
D. Alcohol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because leafy green vegetables contain Vitamin K, which antagonizes the
effects of warfarin; consistent intake maintains stable INR levels, whereas fluctuating intake
can lead to therapeutic failure or bleeding.
Q7: A nurse is administering morphine sulfate to a patient for post-operative pain. Which side
effect is the priority to monitor for due to potential life-threatening complications?
A. Nausea
B. Constipation
C. Res pirator y depres s ion
D. Pruritus
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Correct because opioids suppress the respiratory center in the brain stem;
monitoring respiratory rate is critical to prevent respiratory arrest, which is the most
dangerous adverse effect.
Q8: A patient taking metformin (Glucophage) is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT)
scan with iodine contrast. What instruction should the nurse anticipate regarding metformin?
A. Continue taking the medication as usual to maintain blood glucose control.
B. Double the dose of metformin the day before the procedure.
C. Hold the metformin for 48 hours after the procedure due to lactic acidos is ris k .
D. Switch to insulin therapy only on the day of the scan.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because iodine contrast can impair kidney function, and metformin
accumulation in renal failure can precipitate lactic acidosis; therefore, it is typically withheld
before and after the procedure.
Q9: The nurse is administering a beta-blocker, such as atenolol (Tenormin). Which finding
indicates the medication is effective?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
B. Apical puls e 58 bpm
C. Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because beta-blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility to
lower blood pressure; a heart rate of 58 bpm indicates the drug is exerting its therapeutic
effect on the cardiovascular system.
| Latest Update |Newly Released
Pharmacology | Questions & Answers | Graded A+
Guaranteed Pass | 100% Correct - Herzing University
Q1: A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin). Prior to
administration, the nurse assesses the patient's apical pulse and notes a rate of 52 beats per
minute. What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer the dose as prescribed because the rate is within the normal resting range.
B. Hold the dos e, notify the pres criber, and monitor for s igns of digoxin toxicity.
C. Administer half of the prescribed dose and recheck the pulse in 1 hour.
D. Give the dose with a full glass of water to encourage absorption.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because digoxin decreases the heart rate, and a pulse below 60 bpm (or
specific parameters set by the provider) is a sign of potential toxicity or bradycardia that
requires holding the medication and notifying the provider.
Q2: A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus is prescribed insulin glargine (Lantus). Which
statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching regarding this medication?
A. "I will inject this medication into the fatty tissue of my abdomen."
B. "This insulin provides a steady level of insulin over 24 hours."
C. "I s hould mix this ins ulin with my regular ins ulin before drawing it up."
D. "I need to rotate my injection sites to prevent lipodystrophy."
Correct Answer: C
,Rationale: Correct because insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin that should never be mixed
with other insulins in the same syringe, as it alters the pharmacokinetic profile and stability of
the solution.
Q3: A patient is taking lisinopril (Prinivil) for hypertension. Which laboratory result should the
nurse monitor periodically while the patient is on this medication?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum potas s ium
C. White blood cell count
D. Serum calcium
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because ACE inhibitors like lisinopril inhibit the excretion of potassium,
which can lead to hyperkalemia; therefore, monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent
life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias.
Q4: A patient is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. What is a priority nursing
intervention for this patient?
A. Encouraging intake of high-calcium foods.
B. Administering the medication with milk to decrease GI upset.
C. ins tructing the patient to report gum bleeding or overgrowth.
D. Teaching the patient to avoid hard candy and ice chips.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because phenytoin commonly causes gingival hyperplasia (gum
overgrowth); reporting bleeding or swelling allows for early dental intervention to prevent
periodontal disease.
,Q5: Which medication is classified as a "rescue inhaler" for the treatment of acute asthma
attacks?
A. Fluticasone (Flovent)
B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
C. Albuterol (ProAir)
D. Montelukast (Singulair)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because albuterol is a short-acting beta-agonist (SABA) that rapidly relaxes
bronchial smooth muscle, providing immediate relief during an acute bronchospasm.
Q6: A patient is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse teaches the patient about dietary
interactions. Which food should the patient consume consistently rather than avoiding?
A. Grapefruit juice
B. Leafy green vegetables
C. Aged cheeses
D. Alcohol
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because leafy green vegetables contain Vitamin K, which antagonizes the
effects of warfarin; consistent intake maintains stable INR levels, whereas fluctuating intake
can lead to therapeutic failure or bleeding.
Q7: A nurse is administering morphine sulfate to a patient for post-operative pain. Which side
effect is the priority to monitor for due to potential life-threatening complications?
A. Nausea
B. Constipation
C. Res pirator y depres s ion
D. Pruritus
Correct Answer: C
, Rationale: Correct because opioids suppress the respiratory center in the brain stem;
monitoring respiratory rate is critical to prevent respiratory arrest, which is the most
dangerous adverse effect.
Q8: A patient taking metformin (Glucophage) is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT)
scan with iodine contrast. What instruction should the nurse anticipate regarding metformin?
A. Continue taking the medication as usual to maintain blood glucose control.
B. Double the dose of metformin the day before the procedure.
C. Hold the metformin for 48 hours after the procedure due to lactic acidos is ris k .
D. Switch to insulin therapy only on the day of the scan.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because iodine contrast can impair kidney function, and metformin
accumulation in renal failure can precipitate lactic acidosis; therefore, it is typically withheld
before and after the procedure.
Q9: The nurse is administering a beta-blocker, such as atenolol (Tenormin). Which finding
indicates the medication is effective?
A. Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
B. Apical puls e 58 bpm
C. Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min
D. Peripheral edema
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because beta-blockers reduce heart rate and myocardial contractility to
lower blood pressure; a heart rate of 58 bpm indicates the drug is exerting its therapeutic
effect on the cardiovascular system.
