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WGU D236 Pathophysiology Readiness Assessment Questions and Answers 2025–2026 | Complete OA Exam Prep | Advanced Pathophysiology Study Guide | A+ Verified

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Prepare confidently for the WGU D236 Pathophysiology Readiness Assessment with this comprehensive collection of verified questions and answers covering cardiovascular disorders, heart failure, hypertension, hematologic conditions, leukemia, anemia, sickle cell disease, dermatologic disorders, renal disease, gastrointestinal disorders, musculoskeletal conditions, and advanced pathophysiology concepts essential for Objective Assessment success. This study guide is designed for nursing students and healthcare professionals seeking a focused review of disease mechanisms, clinical manifestations, diagnostic findings, risk factors, and evidence-based treatment considerations. Topics include heart failure pathophysiology, hypertension management, chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), pernicious anemia, tumor lysis syndrome, sickle cell trait, herpes zoster (shingles), atopic dermatitis, pyelonephritis, chronic kidney disease (CKD), diabetic nephropathy, GERD, peptic ulcer disease, gout, osteoarthritis, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and renal disorders. The material provides a high-yield review of concepts commonly tested on the WGU D236 Objective Assessment and advanced nursing examinations.

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WGU D236 Patho Readiness Assessment |
100% Correct Answers | Verified | Latest
2024 Version
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?

-Maternal Age

-Drug exposure during the first trimester

-Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein

-History of previous still birth - ✔✔Maternal Age
PR

The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an amniocentesis at 16

weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this procedure is to:
O
-Assess for the possibility of twins

-Determine bilirubin level
FD
-Perform genetic studies

-Assess L/S ratio - ✔✔Perform Genetic studies



Feedback: This woman's age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
O

In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome affected?
C
-Each cell has only one X chromosome

-Some cells have two X chromosomes, while other cells have only one.

-Each cell has two X chromosomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.

-Each cell has an extra X chromosome. - ✔✔Each cell has only one X chromosome



Feedback: 45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one copy of
the X chromosome in each cell

,The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry, microcephaly, hypertelorism,
hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect which of the following genetic conditions?

-Down Syndrome

-Cri du chat

-Charge syndrome

-Duncan disease - ✔✔Cri du chat



Feedback: The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-like cry,
mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size (microcephaly),
widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle tone (hypotonia) in infancy.
PR

When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:

-Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.

-Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
O
-Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the fetus.

-Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization - ✔✔Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune
FD
response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.



Feedback: There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune response,
which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is controlled by activated B
O
cells and antibodies.
C
A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands and can
manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?

-Coma

-Persistent vegetative state

-Minimally conscious

-Locked-in syndrome - ✔✔Minimally conscious



Feedback: When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally
conscious state

, Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic factors in TBI. Which
GCS score describes a severe TBI?

13-15

12-13

9-12

3-8 - ✔✔3-8



Feedback: The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
PR
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?

-Hallucinations

-Compulsions
O
-Obsessions

-Delusions - ✔✔Obsessions
FD

Feedback: Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause distressing
emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
O
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder, the FNP
might observe what type of behavior?
C
-An inflated sense of self

-Constant relation to future events

-Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned

-Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - ✔✔Inability to concentrate and irritability when
questioned



Feedback: Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.



The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

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