Air Methods Critical Care Exam 2025–2026 | 199
Practice Questions & Verified Answers |
Comprehensive Flight Nursing, Critical Care Transport
& Air Medical Certification Study Guide
THIS EXAM INCLUDES:
199 comprehensive practice questions
Verified correct answers
Critical care transport review materials
Flight nursing and flight paramedic concepts
Air medical operations fundamentals
Advanced airway and ventilation management
Hemodynamic monitoring and shock management
,Critical Care & Emergency Medicine Test Bank
1. What is the most reliable method of confirming and monitoring
correct placement of an endotracheal (ET) tube?
• A. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds
• B. Presence of condensation in the ET tube
• C. Continuous waveform capnography
• D. Pulse oximetry reading of 100%
Answer: C. Continuous waveform capnography
Rationale: Continuous waveform capnography provides real-time evidence
of exhaled carbon dioxide, which is the gold standard for confirming ET
tube placement in the trachea. Auscultation and condensation can be
misleading, and pulse oximetry confirms oxygenation, not ventilation or
placement.
2. Which of the following structures are included in the upper airway?
• A. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
• B. Nose, mouth, pharynx, and larynx
• C. Terminal bronchioles and alveoli
• D. Bronchioles and alveolar ducts
Answer: B. Nose, mouth, pharynx, and larynx
Rationale: The upper airway begins at the nose and mouth and includes
the pharynx and larynx. The lower airway starts from the trachea and
includes the bronchi and bronchioles.
3. The area from the nose to the terminal bronchioles where no gas
exchange occurs is called the:
• A. Physiological dead space
• B. Alveolar dead space
, • C. Anatomical dead space
• D. Shunt space
Answer: C. Anatomical dead space
Rationale: Anatomical dead space refers to the volume of the conducting
airways (nose to terminal bronchioles) that does not participate in gas
exchange. It is approximately 2 mL/kg of inspired tidal volume.
4. A patient presents with tracheal deviation away from the affected
side, absent breath sounds, and hyperresonance to percussion on the
left hemithorax. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A. Massive pleural effusion
• B. Tension pneumothorax
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Simple pneumothorax
Answer: B. Tension pneumothorax
Rationale: The classic findings of a tension pneumothorax include tracheal
deviation away from the affected side, absent or decreased breath sounds,
and hyperresonance due to trapped air. This is a life-threatening condition
requiring immediate needle decompression.
5. A patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals a PaCO2 of 52 mmHg.
This is consistent with:
• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg. A value greater
, than 45 mmHg indicates hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis. A value
less than 35 mmHg indicates hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.
6. Pulmonary hypertension is defined as a mean pulmonary artery
pressure (PAm) greater than:
• A. 10 mmHg
• B. 20 mmHg
• C. 30 mmHg
• D. 40 mmHg
Answer: B. 20 mmHg
Rationale: Normal mean pulmonary artery pressure is 10-20 mmHg.
Pulmonary hypertension is diagnosed when the PAm exceeds 20 mmHg at
rest.
7. Which physiological change in pregnancy contributes to a reduced
functional residual capacity (FRC)?
• A. Increased plasma volume
• B. The gravid uterus lifting the diaphragm
• C. Increased tidal volume
• D. Decreased oxygen consumption
Answer: B. The gravid uterus lifting the diaphragm
Rationale: As the uterus enlarges, it pushes the diaphragm upward,
reducing lung volumes, including the functional residual capacity (FRC). This
makes pregnant patients more susceptible to hypoxemia during periods of
hypoventilation or apnea.
8. For a pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest, the
recommended maximum time from arrest to performing a perimortem
cesarean section is:
Practice Questions & Verified Answers |
Comprehensive Flight Nursing, Critical Care Transport
& Air Medical Certification Study Guide
THIS EXAM INCLUDES:
199 comprehensive practice questions
Verified correct answers
Critical care transport review materials
Flight nursing and flight paramedic concepts
Air medical operations fundamentals
Advanced airway and ventilation management
Hemodynamic monitoring and shock management
,Critical Care & Emergency Medicine Test Bank
1. What is the most reliable method of confirming and monitoring
correct placement of an endotracheal (ET) tube?
• A. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds
• B. Presence of condensation in the ET tube
• C. Continuous waveform capnography
• D. Pulse oximetry reading of 100%
Answer: C. Continuous waveform capnography
Rationale: Continuous waveform capnography provides real-time evidence
of exhaled carbon dioxide, which is the gold standard for confirming ET
tube placement in the trachea. Auscultation and condensation can be
misleading, and pulse oximetry confirms oxygenation, not ventilation or
placement.
2. Which of the following structures are included in the upper airway?
• A. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli
• B. Nose, mouth, pharynx, and larynx
• C. Terminal bronchioles and alveoli
• D. Bronchioles and alveolar ducts
Answer: B. Nose, mouth, pharynx, and larynx
Rationale: The upper airway begins at the nose and mouth and includes
the pharynx and larynx. The lower airway starts from the trachea and
includes the bronchi and bronchioles.
3. The area from the nose to the terminal bronchioles where no gas
exchange occurs is called the:
• A. Physiological dead space
• B. Alveolar dead space
, • C. Anatomical dead space
• D. Shunt space
Answer: C. Anatomical dead space
Rationale: Anatomical dead space refers to the volume of the conducting
airways (nose to terminal bronchioles) that does not participate in gas
exchange. It is approximately 2 mL/kg of inspired tidal volume.
4. A patient presents with tracheal deviation away from the affected
side, absent breath sounds, and hyperresonance to percussion on the
left hemithorax. What is the most likely diagnosis?
• A. Massive pleural effusion
• B. Tension pneumothorax
• C. Atelectasis
• D. Simple pneumothorax
Answer: B. Tension pneumothorax
Rationale: The classic findings of a tension pneumothorax include tracheal
deviation away from the affected side, absent or decreased breath sounds,
and hyperresonance due to trapped air. This is a life-threatening condition
requiring immediate needle decompression.
5. A patient's arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals a PaCO2 of 52 mmHg.
This is consistent with:
• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis
Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis
Rationale: The normal range for PaCO2 is 35-45 mmHg. A value greater
, than 45 mmHg indicates hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis. A value
less than 35 mmHg indicates hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis.
6. Pulmonary hypertension is defined as a mean pulmonary artery
pressure (PAm) greater than:
• A. 10 mmHg
• B. 20 mmHg
• C. 30 mmHg
• D. 40 mmHg
Answer: B. 20 mmHg
Rationale: Normal mean pulmonary artery pressure is 10-20 mmHg.
Pulmonary hypertension is diagnosed when the PAm exceeds 20 mmHg at
rest.
7. Which physiological change in pregnancy contributes to a reduced
functional residual capacity (FRC)?
• A. Increased plasma volume
• B. The gravid uterus lifting the diaphragm
• C. Increased tidal volume
• D. Decreased oxygen consumption
Answer: B. The gravid uterus lifting the diaphragm
Rationale: As the uterus enlarges, it pushes the diaphragm upward,
reducing lung volumes, including the functional residual capacity (FRC). This
makes pregnant patients more susceptible to hypoxemia during periods of
hypoventilation or apnea.
8. For a pregnant patient at 28 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest, the
recommended maximum time from arrest to performing a perimortem
cesarean section is:
