NUR2063 (NUR 2063) exam 2/ Essentials of Pathophysiology: exam 2 practice; latest spring 2026/27.

Essentials of Pathophysiology (NUR2063) Exam 2 Guide 2 Sp26. 1. What is the primary cause of gastritis? A. A) High fiber diet B. B) Ingestion of irritating substances (alcohol, aspirin, NSAIDs) C. C) Vitamin D deficiency D. D) Chronic hypertension E. 2. Which complication of untreated GERD involves columnar tissue replacing normal squamous epithelium? A. A) Esophageal varices B. B) Barrett esophagus C. C) Hiatal hernia D. D) Gastric atrophy E. 3. Which ism plays a key role in promoting peptic ulcer formation? A. A) E. coli B. B) C. difficile C. C) H. pylori D. D) T. pallidum E. 4. Where is the most frequent location for peptic ulcers to develop? A. A) Distal colon B. B) Stomach body C. C) Proximal duodenum D. D) Lower esophagus E. 5. A patient presents with a "board-like" abdominal rigidity. What does this likely indicate? A. A) Acute gastritis B. B) Peritonitis C. C) Hiatal hernia D. D) GERD E. 6. What are the classic clinical manifestations of appendicitis? A. A) LUQ pain and jaundice B. B) Periumbilical pain migrating to RLQ (McBurney’s point) C. C) Epigastric burning relieved by milk D. D) Chronic bloody diarrhea E. 7. Exposure to which of the following often causes pseudomembranous colitis? A. A) NSAIDs B. B) High-fat foods C. C) Antibiotics (C. difficile) D. D) Alcohol abuse E. 8. Which of the following is a mechanical bowel obstruction where the intestine "telescopes" into itself? A. A) Volvulus B. B) Paralytic ileus C. C) Intussusception D. D) Adhesion E. 9. What is the most common cause of chronic pancreatitis? A. A) Gallstones B. B) Alcohol consumption/abuse C. C) High triglyceride levels D. D) Bacterial infection E. 10. What is the most common cause of acute pancreatitis? A. A) Gallstones B. B) Chronic NSAID use C. C) Autoimmune destruction D. D) High fiber intake E. Answer: A 11. RUQ pain and jaundice are clinical manifestations of what condition? A. A) Appendicitis B. B) Obstructed gallbladder/bile duct C. C) Peptic ulcer disease D. D) Hiatal hernia E. 12. Which of the following is a characteristic of ulcerative colitis? A. A) Skip lesions throughout the GI tract B. B) Bloody diarrhea and inflammation starting in the rectum C. C) Primarily affects the small intestine D. D) Caused by H. pylori E. 13. What is the classic sign of kidney or renal pain? A. A) CVA (costovertebral angle) tenderness B. B) Epigastric pain C. C) RLQ tenderness D. D) Pain in the pelvic floor E. Answer: A 14. What is the etiology of polycystic kidney disease (PKD)? A. A) Bacterial infection B. B) Genetically transmitted disorder C. C) Chronic NSAID use D. D) Low blood pressure E. 15. What is the most common ism responsible for UTIs? A. A) H. pylori B. B) E. coli C. C) N. gonorrhoeae D. D) T. pallidum E. 16. Postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis often presents with which sign? A. A) Dilute, clear urine B. B) Smoky or coffee-colored urine C. C) Bright red blood in urine D. D) Intense RUQ pain E. 17. Which type of AKI is caused by low blood pressure or low blood volume? A. A) Prerenal B. B) Intrinsic C. C) Postrenal D. D) Chronic E. Answer: A 18. A stone in the ureter or an enlarged prostate causes which type of AKI? A. A) Prerenal B. B) Intrinsic C. C) Postrenal D. D) Intrarenal E. 19. What is the primary cause of intrinsic (intrarenal) kidney injury? A. A) Hypotension B. B) Toxic injury (contrast media, NSAIDs) C. C) Kidney stones D. D) Heart failure E. 20. What are the two most common comorbidities linked to chronic kidney disease (CKD)? A. A) Obesity and sedentary lifestyle B. B) Hypertension and diabetes mellitus C. C) Alcoholism and smoking D. D) Asthma and COPD E. 21. Which electrolyte imbalance in CKD is most likely to cause fatal arrhythmias? A. A) Hyponatremia B. B) Hypocalcemia C. C) Hyperkalemia (Potassium) D. D) Hypomagnesemia E. 22. Involuntary leakage of urine during sneezing or coughing is called: A. A) Urge incontinence B. B) Stress incontinence C. C) Overflow incontinence D. D) Reflex incontinence E. 23. What is enuresis? A. A) Painful urination B. B) Involuntary urination (bed-wetting) C. C) Blood in the urine D. D) Difficulty starting a stream E. 24. A palpable mass in the CVA may indicate: A. A) Kidney stones B. B) Pyelonephritis C. C) Renal tumors D. D) BPH E. 25. The order of filtrate flow through the kidney is: A. A) Loop of Henle - PCT - Bowman's capsule B. B) Bowman's capsule - PCT - Loop of Henle - DCT C. C) Collecting duct - DCT - Loop of Henle D. D) Glomerulus - DCT - Loop of Henle - PCT E. 26. What is the hallmark clinical manifestation of BPH? A. A) Testicular pain B. B) Difficulty initiating a urinary stream and hesitancy C. C) Painless chancre D. D) Bloody vaginal discharge E. 27. Testicular torsion is a medical emergency because it leads to: A. A) Urinary retention B. B) Ischemia and infarction of the testicle C. C) HPV infection D. D) Cystitis E. 28. Endometriosis is defined as: A. A) Inflammation of the cervix B. B) Endometrial tissue growing outside the uterine cavity C. C) A bacterial infection of the uterus D. D) Malignant tumors in the ovaries E. 29. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is primarily caused by: A. A) E. coli and C. diff B. B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis C. C) HSV-1 and HPV D. D) T. pallidum E. 30. What is the most significant risk factor for cervical cancer? A. A) Multiple pregnancies B. B) Human Papillomavirus (HPV) C. C) Smoking D. D) Endometriosis E. 31. Primary syphilis is characterized by: A. A) A systemic rash B. B) A painless chancre C. C) Blindness and paralysis D. D) Low-grade fever and headache E. 32. Which stage of syphilis involves destructive damage to the CNS and cardiovascular system? A. A) Primary B. B) Secondary C. C) Latent D. D) Tertiary (Late) E. 33. Chlamydial infection during delivery can cause what in a newborn? A. A) Ophthalmia neonatorum (neonatal conjunctivitis) B. B) Congenital heart defects C. C) Hydrocele D. D) Epispadias E. Answer: A 34. Which STI is characterized by lifelong infection and periodic recurrences of vesicles? A. A) Syphilis B. B) Gonorrhea C. C) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) D. D) Chlamydia E. 35. Weight gain and edema are common manifestations of: A. A) Hyperemesis gravidarum B. B) Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) C. C) Endometriosis D. D) Cryptorchidism E. 36. The term for "hidden testes" where they fail to descend into the scrotum is: A. A) Hydrocele B. B) Testicular torsion C. C) Cryptorchidism D. D) Hypospadias E. 37. What is the difference between epispadias and hypospadias? A. A) Epispadias is on the ventral side, hypospadias is dorsal B. B) Epispadias is on the dorsal side, hypospadias is ventral C. C) Epispadias affects females, hypospadias affects males D. D) Epispadias is a tumor, hypospadias is an infection E. 38. Which condition occurs due to excess Growth Hormone after the skeletal epiphyses close? A. A) Gigantism B. B) Acromegaly C. C) Dwarfism D. D) Cushing's syndrome E. 39. What electrolyte is primarily affected by Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)? A. A) Sodium B. B) Potassium C. C) Calcium D. D) Magnesium E. 40. Labs for primary hypothyroidism would show: A. A) Low TSH, High T3/T4 B. B) Elevated TSH, Low T3/T4 C. C) Elevated TSH, Elevated T3/T4 D. D) Low TSH, Low T3/T4 E. 41. Graves' disease (hyperthyroidism) often presents with: A. A) Moon face B. B) Exophthalmos (bulging eyes) C. C) Bradycardia D. D) Cold intolerance E. 42. Moon face and buffalo hump are hallmarks of: A. A) Addison’s disease B. B) Cushing’s syndrome C. C) Diabetes Insipidus D. D) Hypothyroidism E. 43. Hyperpigmentation (bronze skin) is a unique manifestation of: A. A) Cushing’s syndrome B. B) Addison’s disease C. C) SIADH D. D) Type 2 Diabetes E. 44. Diabetes Insipidus (DI) is caused by a deficiency of: A. A) Insulin B. B) ADH (Antidiuretic Hormone) C. C) Cortisol D. D) Aldosterone E. 45. What is the hallmark electrolyte abnormality in SIADH? A. A) Hypernatremia B. B) Hyponatremia C. C) Hyperkalemia D. D) Hypocalcemia E. 46. What is the underlying cause of Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus? A. A) Insulin resistance B. B) Autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells C. C) Obesity D. D) Excess glucagon production E. 47. What are the "three Ps" of hyperglycemia? A. A) Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia B. B) Pain, pallor, pulselessness C. C) Proteinuria, pyuria, polyuria D. D) Polydipsia, polycythemia, polyphagia E. Answer: A 48. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) is characterized by: A. A) Insulin resistance and weight gain B. B) Fruity breath, Kussmaul respirations, and ketones C. C) High ADH levels D. D) Severe hyponatremia E. 49. The HgbA1c test measures glucose levels over what period? A. A) 24 hours B. B) 1 week C. C) 1 month D. D) 3 months E. 50. What is the purpose of dialysis in kidney disease? A. A) To increase urine output B. B) To remove waste products and maintain fluid/electrolyte balance C. C) To cure polycystic kidney disease D. D) To prevent kidney stones E.