Exam 2 Essentials of Pathophysiology (NUR2063)/ NUR 2063: Questions and answers | updated latest 2026 - Rasmussen.

Essentials of Pathophysiology (NUR2063) Exam 2 Guide Sp26. 1. Which mechanism explains the development of Barrett esophagus in chronic GERD patients? a. A) Squamous cells undergo hypertrophy to resist acid. b. B) Normal squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar tissue in the distal esophagus. c. C) Esophageal tissue undergoes fibrotic scarring and stricture formation. d. D) The lower esophageal sphincter (LES) permanently loses its closure strength. e. Organ 2. In Peptic Ulcer Disease, how does the timing of pain typically differentiate a gastric ulcer from a duodenal ulcer? a. A) Duodenal pain occurs immediately after eating; gastric pain occurs 3 hours later. b. B) Gastric ulcers cause pain on a full stomach; duodenal ulcers cause pain 2–3 hours after a meal when the stomach is empty. c. C) Both cause pain only at night regardless of food intake. d. D) Gastric ulcers are relieved by spicy foods, while duodenal ulcers are worsened. e. 3. A patient with peritonitis presents with a "board-like" rigid abdomen. What is the physiological cause of this finding? a. A) Accumulation of gas and fluid in the small intestine. b. B) Reflex muscle spasms of the abdominal wall due to peritoneal irritation and inflammation. c. C) Destruction of the normal flora leading to gas production. d. D) Sepsis causing systemic hypotension. e. 4. How does Ulcerative Colitis differ from Crohn’s Disease in its anatomical presentation? a. A) Crohn's is limited to the rectum; Ulcerative Colitis involves skip lesions. b. B) Ulcerative Colitis begins in the rectum and extends continuously through the colon; Crohn’s presents with "skip lesions" and involves the full thickness of the wall. c. C) Ulcerative Colitis only affects the small intestine; Crohn's affects the large intestine. d. D) Crohn's is caused by H. pylori, while Ulcerative Colitis is caused by antibiotics. e. 5. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis? a. A) Chronic irritation from gallstones causing low-grade inflammation. b. B) Autodigestion of the pancreas due to premature enzyme activation, often triggered by gallstones or alcohol. c. C) Hypoactive bowel sounds leading to mechanical obstruction. d. D) Hypertriglyceridemia causing the destruction of the islets of Langerhans. e. 6. A patient presents with pain at McBurney’s point and systemic signs of inflammation. Which condition is most likely? a. A) Cholecystitis. b. B) Diverticulitis. c. C) Appendicitis. d. D) Pseudomembranous colitis. e. 7. What is the defining characteristic of a functional bowel obstruction like paralytic ileus? a. A) A physical blockage such as a tumor or adhesion. b. B) The intestine telescoping into itself (intussusception). c. C) A loss of propulsive ability (peristalsis) due to medications, surgery, or low fiber. d. D) Twisting of the bowel causing ischemia (volvulus). e. 8. What is a significant risk factor for developing esophageal cancer? a. A) Acute gastritis. b. B) Untreated GERD leading to Barrett esophagus. c. C) Chronic salmonella infection from raw chicken. d. D) Use of antacids for occasional heartburn. e. 9. Which clinical manifestation is associated with hepatocellular failure in liver disease? a. A) Esophageal varices and hemorrhoids. b. B) Jaundice, decreased clotting factors, and hypoalbuminemia. c. C) Splenomegaly and ascites. d. D) GI congestion and portal hypertension. e. 10. A patient with newly diagnosed pancreatitis must strictly avoid which of the following? a. A) Dairy products. b. B) Alcohol. c. C) High-fiber foods. d. D) Antibiotics. e. 11. Which complication of a perforated gallbladder is considered a medical emergency? a. A) Chronic cholecystitis. b. B) Sepsis. c. C) Barrett esophagus. d. D) Gastric atrophy. e. 12. What role does H. pylori play in Peptic Ulcer Disease (PUD)? a. A) It reduces acid production to protect the lining. b. B) It thrives in acidic conditions and promotes both gastric and duodenal ulcer formation. c. C) It only causes ulcers in the colon mucosa. d. D) It is an autoimmune condition that destroys the stomach lining. e. 13. What is the hallmark sign of postinfectious acute glomerulonephritis in pediatric patients? a. A) Bright red hematuria and extreme flank pain. b. B) Smoky or coffee-colored urine, proteinuria, and edema. c. C) Massive polyuria and hypernatremia. d. D) Cloudy, foul-smelling urine with urgency. e. 14. Which condition is a "prerenal" cause of Acute Kidney Injury (AKI)? a. A) A stone in the ureter or enlarged prostate. b. B) Severe hypotension, hypovolemia, or heart failure that diminishes perfusion. c. C) Toxic injury from contrast media or chemotherapy. d. D) Polycystic kidney disease. e. 15. During the "Oliguric Phase" of AKI, which of the following is a primary concern? a. A) Dehydration and hypotension. b. B) Fluid volume excess (edema) and hyperkalemia. c. C) A rapid increase in GFR and urine output. d. D) Normal levels of BUN and creatinine. e. 16. What is the primary pathophysiology behind Polycystic Kidney Disease (PKD)? a. A) Ascending E. coli infection forming abscesses. b. B) Genetically transmitted disorder causing fluid-filled cysts that can lead to renal failure. c. C) Toxic damage to the nephrons from NSAID use. d. D) Obstruction of the ureters by calcium stones. e. 17. Which electrolyte imbalance in Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is most likely to lead to fatal arrhythmias? a. A) Hyponatremia. b. B) Hypocalcemia. c. C) Hyperkalemia. d. D) Hypercalcemia. e. 18. A patient experiencing involuntary leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing is diagnosed with: a. A) Urge incontinence. b. B) Stress incontinence. c. C) Overflow incontinence. d. D) Reflex incontinence. e. 19. What occurs during the "Diuretic Phase" of Acute Kidney Injury recovery? a. A) Urine output remains below 400 mL/day. b. B) Urine volume increases (diuresis), but the patient is at risk for dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. c. C) BUN and creatinine immediately return to normal. d. D) The kidneys regain the full ability to concentrate urine. e. 20. Postrenal AKI is uniquely characterized by: a. A) Damage to the renal tubules themselves. b. B) Obstruction distal to the kidney (e.g., BPH or stones) that increases pressure in Bowman’s capsule. c. C) A sudden drop in cardiac output. d. D) Autoimmune destruction of the glomeruli. e. 21. What does a palpable mass at the costovertebral angle (CVA) typically indicate? a. A) A simple UTI. b. B) A renal tumor. c. C) Stress incontinence. d. D) Hypospadias. e. 22. What are the two most common causes of Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)? a. A) Alcoholism and obesity. b. B) Hypertension and Diabetes Mellitus. c. C) Recurrent UTIs and smoking. d. D) Age over 65 and heart failure. e. 23. Which statement correctly describes the flow of filtrate through the nephron? a. A) Loop of Henle - PCT - Bowman’s capsule. b. B) Bowman’s capsule - PCT - Loop of Henle - DCT - Collecting duct. c. C) DCT - Collecting duct - Glomerulus. d. D) Glomerulus - Collecting duct - Loop of Henle. e. 24. In Uremic Syndrome, what is the cause of "uremic frost" and pruritus? a. A) Excess sodium retention. b. B) Retention of metabolic wastes that cannot be excreted by the kidneys. c. C) A lack of ADH production. d. D) Chronic inflammation of the bladder lining. e. 25. What is the most effective preventative measure for hospital-acquired pyelonephritis? a. A) High-dose antibiotics. b. B) Early removal of urinary catheters. c. C) Increasing protein intake. d. D) Treating hypertension. e. 26. Which condition is a medical emergency characterized by the twisting of the spermatic cord? a. A) Hydrocele. b. B) Testicular torsion. c. C) Cryptorchidism. d. D) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia. e. 27. What is the primary clinical manifestation of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)? a. A) Painless chancre on the genitalia. b. B) Difficulty initiating a urinary stream, hesitancy, and decreased stream. c. C) Sinking of the cervix into the vagina. d. D) Excessive menstrual bleeding. e. 28. In which stage of syphilis does the patient develop a "painless chancre" at the site of entry? a. A) Latent stage. b. B) Primary stage. c. C) Secondary stage. d. D) Tertiary stage. e. 29. Tertiary (late) syphilis is particularly dangerous because it causes destructive damage to which systems? a. A) Renal and Gastrointestinal. b. B) Cardiovascular and Central Nervous Systems (CNS). c. C) Musculoskeletal and Integumentary. d. D) Respiratory and Endocrine. e. 30. A newborn diagnosed with ophthalmia neonatorum likely contracted the infection from a mother with: a. A) Syphilis. b. B) Chlamydia. c. C) Herpes Simplex Virus. d. D) HPV. e. 31. What is the definition of endometriosis? a. A) Inflammation of the fallopian tubes due to gonorrhea. b. B) Presence of endometrial tissue outside the lining of the uterine cavity. c. C) Sinking of the uterus into the vagina. d. D) Precancerous changes in the cervical cells. e. 32. Which virus is responsible for the majority of cervical cancer cases? a. A) HSV-2. b. B) Human Papillomavirus (HPV). c. C) Treponema pallidum. d. D) Chlamydia trachomatis. e. 33. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is most commonly caused by which two organisms? a. A) E. coli and C. diff. b. B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis. c. C) HSV-1 and HSV-2. d. D) H. pylori and Salmonella. e. 34. How does epispadias differ from hypospadias? a. A) Epispadias involves the bladder; hypospadias involves the urethra. b. B) Epispadias is a urethral opening on the dorsal head of the penis; hypospadias is on the ventral side. c. C) Epispadias is congenital; hypospadias is acquired. d. D) Epispadias affects only the testicles. e. 35. What is a complication of untreated cryptorchidism? a. A) BPH. b. B) Fibrotic tubules and deficiency in spermatogenesis (infertility). c. C) Testicular torsion. d. D) Ophthalmia neonatorum. e. 36. Acromegaly differs from Gigantism in that it occurs: a. A) Due to a deficiency in GH. b. B) After the skeletal epiphyses (growth plates) have closed. c. C) Only in young children. d. D) Due to an autoimmune destruction of the pituitary. e. 37. In primary hypothyroidism (like Hashimoto’s), what are the expected laboratory findings? a. A) Low TSH and high T3/T4. b. B) Elevated TSH and low T3/T4. c. C) High TSH and high T3/T4. d. D) Low TSH and low T3/T4 (Secondary). e. 38. Which electrolyte is primarily regulated by Parathyroid Hormone (PTH)? a. A) Sodium. b. *B) Calcium. c. C) Potassium. d. D) Magnesium. e. 39. What is a unique clinical manifestation of Addison’s Disease (adrenocortical insufficiency)? a. A) Moon face and buffalo hump. b. B) Hyperpigmentation (bronze-colored skin). c. C) Exophthalmos (bulging eyes). d. D) Water retention and weight gain. e. 40. How does Diabetes Insipidus (DI) present clinically? a. A) Water intoxication and little urine output. b. B) Large volumes of dilute urine, extreme thirst, and hypernatremia. c. C) Hyperglycemia and fruity breath. d. D) High levels of ADH causing edema. e. 41. Which condition is characterized by hyponatremia due to excessive water retention? a. A) Diabetes Insipidus. b. B) SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH). c. C) Cushing’s Syndrome. d. D) Type 1 Diabetes. e. 42. What are the "Three Ps" of hyperglycemia in Type 1 Diabetes? a. A) Pain, pallor, and pulselessness. b. B) Polyuria, Polydipsia, and Polyphagia. c. C) Proteinuria, pyuria, and polyuria. d. D) Polydipsia, polycythemia, and polyphagia. e. 43. What is the hallmark physiological difference between Type 1 and Type 2 Diabetes? a. A) Type 1 is caused by obesity; Type 2 is genetic. b. B) Type 1 involves autoimmune destruction of beta cells (no insulin); Type 2 involves insulin resistance. c. C) Type 1 only affects adults; Type 2 only affects children. d. D) Type 1 is treated with diet; Type 2 requires only insulin. e. 44. Which life-threatening complication of Type 1 Diabetes involves the metabolism of fats into ketones? a. A) HHNS (Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state). b. B) Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). c. C) Myxedema coma. d. D) Thyroid storm. e. 45. A patient with Graves' Disease (hyperthyroidism) would likely exhibit: a. A) Bradycardia and cold intolerance. b. B) Tachycardia, weight loss, and exophthalmos. c. C) Weight gain and constipation. d. D) Moon face and buffalo hump. e. 46. What does the HgbA1c test measure? a. A) Blood glucose levels for the past 24 hours. b. B) Average blood glucose levels over the past 3 months. c. C) The amount of ketones in the urine. d. D) The level of insulin resistance in the muscles. e. 47. Pheochromocytoma is a tumor of the adrenal gland that primarily causes: a. A) Hypoglycemia and weight gain. b. B) Hypertension and excessive epinephrine/norepinephrine release. c. C) Bronze skin and salt cravings. d. D) Excessive growth of facial bones. e. 48. Which of the following is an emergency condition of untreated, severe hypothyroidism? a. A) Thyroid storm. b. B) Myxedema (coma). c. C) Diabetic Ketoacidosis. d. D) Graves' Disease. e. 49. Cushing’s Syndrome results from an excess of which hormone? a. A) ADH. b. B) Glucocorticoids (Cortisol). c. C) Insulin. d. D) Growth Hormone. e. 50. What is the primary cause of Hyperemesis Gravidarum (HG) in pregnancy? a. A) Low levels of estrogen. b. B) Abnormal response to large amounts of hCG from the placenta. c. C) Untreated syphilis. d. D) Increased intra-abdominal pressure. e.