LPN Module 7: Maternal, Infant & Pediatric Nursing 2026/2027
UPDATE
1. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s
rule for a client whose last menstrual period began on May 4. Which date is the
correct EDD?
A. January 11
B. January 27
C. February 4
D. February 11
Answer: D
Rationale: Naegele’s rule involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days and 1 year to
the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). May 4 minus 3 months is February 4, plus
7 days is February 11.
2. Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive pregnancy test
B. Amenorrhea
C. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
D. Quickening
Answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those attributed only to the presence of a fetus,
such as hearing fetal heart tones, visualizing the fetus via ultrasound, or palpating fetal
movement by an examiner.
,3. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports sudden, painless bright red vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Preterm labor
C. Placenta previa
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae usually involves painful, dark red bleeding.
4. Which medication is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity in a client
with preeclampsia?
A. Naloxone
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Vitamin K
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: D
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of
magnesium sulfate toxicity, such as respiratory depression or loss of deep tendon reflexes.
5. A nurse is assessing a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor.
Which cervical dilation range is characteristic of this phase?
A. 0 to 3 cm
B. Full dilation to birth
C. 8 to 10 cm
D. 4 to 7 cm
Answer: D
Rationale: The first stage of labor has three phases: Latent (0-3 cm), Active (4-7 cm), and
Transition (8-10 cm).
, 6. During a fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor assessment, the nurse notes late
decelerations. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannular at 2L/min
D. Assist the client into a left lateral position
Answer: D
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The priority action is to
improve oxygenation to the fetus by repositioning the mother to her side (left lateral) to
increase uterine blood flow.
7. A postpartum nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after delivery and finds the
fundus is boggy and displaced to the right. What is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Assist the client to void
B. Administer oxytocin
C. Massage the fundus until firm
D. Notify the provider
Answer: A
Rationale: A fundus displaced to the right is a classic sign of bladder distention. A full
bladder prevents the uterus from contracting, leading to a boggy fundus. Assisting the
client to void is the first step.
UPDATE
1. A nurse is calculating the estimated date of delivery (EDD) using Naegele’s
rule for a client whose last menstrual period began on May 4. Which date is the
correct EDD?
A. January 11
B. January 27
C. February 4
D. February 11
Answer: D
Rationale: Naegele’s rule involves subtracting 3 months and adding 7 days and 1 year to
the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP). May 4 minus 3 months is February 4, plus
7 days is February 11.
2. Which of the following is considered a positive sign of pregnancy?
A. Positive pregnancy test
B. Amenorrhea
C. Fetal heart tones heard by Doppler
D. Quickening
Answer: C
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy are those attributed only to the presence of a fetus,
such as hearing fetal heart tones, visualizing the fetus via ultrasound, or palpating fetal
movement by an examiner.
,3. A client at 32 weeks gestation reports sudden, painless bright red vaginal
bleeding. Which condition should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Preterm labor
C. Placenta previa
D. Uterine rupture
Answer: C
Rationale: Placenta previa is characterized by painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the
second or third trimester. Abruptio placentae usually involves painful, dark red bleeding.
4. Which medication is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity in a client
with preeclampsia?
A. Naloxone
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Vitamin K
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: D
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the specific antidote used to reverse the effects of
magnesium sulfate toxicity, such as respiratory depression or loss of deep tendon reflexes.
5. A nurse is assessing a client in the active phase of the first stage of labor.
Which cervical dilation range is characteristic of this phase?
A. 0 to 3 cm
B. Full dilation to birth
C. 8 to 10 cm
D. 4 to 7 cm
Answer: D
Rationale: The first stage of labor has three phases: Latent (0-3 cm), Active (4-7 cm), and
Transition (8-10 cm).
, 6. During a fetal heart rate (FHR) monitor assessment, the nurse notes late
decelerations. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Increase the oxytocin infusion rate
B. Perform a vaginal exam
C. Administer oxygen via nasal cannular at 2L/min
D. Assist the client into a left lateral position
Answer: D
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The priority action is to
improve oxygenation to the fetus by repositioning the mother to her side (left lateral) to
increase uterine blood flow.
7. A postpartum nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after delivery and finds the
fundus is boggy and displaced to the right. What is the priority nursing
intervention?
A. Assist the client to void
B. Administer oxytocin
C. Massage the fundus until firm
D. Notify the provider
Answer: A
Rationale: A fundus displaced to the right is a classic sign of bladder distention. A full
bladder prevents the uterus from contracting, leading to a boggy fundus. Assisting the
client to void is the first step.
