LPN Semester 3 Final Exam — Modules 5–7 (Cumulative) 2026/2027
UPDATE
1. A nurse is monitoring a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium
sulfate. Which finding should be reported to the provider immediately?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 14/min
D. Blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is excreted by the kidneys; urine output less than 30 mL/hr
indicates potential toxicity. DTRs of 2+ and RR of 14 are normal findings.
2. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar
disorder, manic phase. Which meal is most appropriate for this client?
A. A chicken salad wrap and an apple
B. Spaghetti and meatballs
C. Steak and a baked potato
D. Soup and crackers
Answer: A
Rationale: Clients in a manic phase often cannot sit down to eat. Portable ‘finger foods’
allow them to maintain nutrition while moving.
,3. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child in the emergency department who
has a barking cough and stridor. Which condition is most likely?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)
Answer: D
Rationale: Croup is characterized by a brassy, barking cough and inspiratory stridor due to
upper airway inflammation.
4. A client with a history of schizophrenia is taking haloperidol. The nurse notes
the client is experiencing fine tremors and shuffling gait. What are these
symptoms called?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Akathisia
Answer: A
Rationale: Fine tremors and shuffling gait are classic signs of pseudoparkinsonism, a type
of extrapyramidal symptom caused by antipsychotic medication.
5. In a mass casualty event, which tag should the triage nurse assign to a client
with a sucking chest wound?
A. Black
B. Red
C. Green
D. Yellow
Answer: B
, Rationale: Red tags are for immediate threats to life that are treatable, such as airway or
breathing issues like a sucking chest wound.
6. A postpartum nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after delivery. The fundus is
boggy and displaced to the right. What is the priority action?
A. Perform a fundal massage
B. Call the provider
C. Assist the client to the bathroom to void
D. Increase the IV oxytocin rate
Answer: C
Rationale: A fundus displaced to the right is usually caused by a full bladder. Emptying the
bladder allows the uterus to contract effectively.
7. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Epoetin alfa
B. Furosemide
C. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
D. Calcium carbonate
Answer: C
Rationale: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to exchange sodium for
potassium in the GI tract to treat hyperkalemia.
8. A nurse is caring for a child with Tetralogy of Fallot who begins to have a ‘Tet
spell.’ Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen via face mask
B. Prepare for morphine administration
C. Place the child in a knee-chest position
D. Start an IV line
Answer: C
UPDATE
1. A nurse is monitoring a client with preeclampsia who is receiving magnesium
sulfate. Which finding should be reported to the provider immediately?
A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
B. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
C. Respiratory rate of 14/min
D. Blood pressure of 150/95 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is excreted by the kidneys; urine output less than 30 mL/hr
indicates potential toxicity. DTRs of 2+ and RR of 14 are normal findings.
2. A client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of bipolar
disorder, manic phase. Which meal is most appropriate for this client?
A. A chicken salad wrap and an apple
B. Spaghetti and meatballs
C. Steak and a baked potato
D. Soup and crackers
Answer: A
Rationale: Clients in a manic phase often cannot sit down to eat. Portable ‘finger foods’
allow them to maintain nutrition while moving.
,3. The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old child in the emergency department who
has a barking cough and stridor. Which condition is most likely?
A. Epiglottitis
B. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Bronchiolitis
D. Laryngotracheobronchitis (Croup)
Answer: D
Rationale: Croup is characterized by a brassy, barking cough and inspiratory stridor due to
upper airway inflammation.
4. A client with a history of schizophrenia is taking haloperidol. The nurse notes
the client is experiencing fine tremors and shuffling gait. What are these
symptoms called?
A. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
B. Tardive dyskinesia
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Akathisia
Answer: A
Rationale: Fine tremors and shuffling gait are classic signs of pseudoparkinsonism, a type
of extrapyramidal symptom caused by antipsychotic medication.
5. In a mass casualty event, which tag should the triage nurse assign to a client
with a sucking chest wound?
A. Black
B. Red
C. Green
D. Yellow
Answer: B
, Rationale: Red tags are for immediate threats to life that are treatable, such as airway or
breathing issues like a sucking chest wound.
6. A postpartum nurse is assessing a client 2 hours after delivery. The fundus is
boggy and displaced to the right. What is the priority action?
A. Perform a fundal massage
B. Call the provider
C. Assist the client to the bathroom to void
D. Increase the IV oxytocin rate
Answer: C
Rationale: A fundus displaced to the right is usually caused by a full bladder. Emptying the
bladder allows the uterus to contract effectively.
7. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L.
Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
A. Epoetin alfa
B. Furosemide
C. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
D. Calcium carbonate
Answer: C
Rationale: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to exchange sodium for
potassium in the GI tract to treat hyperkalemia.
8. A nurse is caring for a child with Tetralogy of Fallot who begins to have a ‘Tet
spell.’ Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen via face mask
B. Prepare for morphine administration
C. Place the child in a knee-chest position
D. Start an IV line
Answer: C
