Page 1 of 103
,Page 2 of 103
NR 546 / NR546 Midterm Exam (Latest 2026
/ 2027) 2 Exams Versions (A & B) Questions
& Answers – Verified Answers – 100%
Guaranteed Pass ||Complete A+ Guide
1. A patient with schizophrenia shows poor response to typical
antipsychotics. Which receptor profile is most associated with
treatment-resistant symptoms?
A) High D2 occupancy only
B) Low 5-HT2A and high D2
C) High D2 and low 5-HT2A
D) Low D2 and high 5-HT1A
,Page 3 of 103
Correct Answer: A – High D2 occupancy alone fails to
address negative/cognitive symptoms; treatment resistance
often involves glutamate/NMDA dysfunction.
2. Which brain region’s hypofunction is most linked to negative
symptoms of schizophrenia?
A) Nucleus accumbens
B) Prefrontal cortex
C) VTA
D) Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: B – Hypofrontality correlates with negative
symptoms (avolition, anhedonia).
3. A patient develops EPS after haloperidol. Which pathway is
primarily affected?
A) Mesolimbic
B) Mesocortical
C) Nigrostriatal
D) Tuberoinfundibular
, Page 4 of 103
Correct Answer: C – Nigrostriatal D2 blockade causes EPS.
4. Scenario: A 45-year-old male on risperidone reports
galactorrhea. Which receptor action explains this?
A) 5-HT2A antagonism
B) D2 blockade in tuberoinfundibular pathway
C) H1 blockade
D) M1 antagonism
Correct Answer: B – D2 blockade in tuberoinfundibular →
increased prolactin.
5. Which neurotransmitter is primarily degraded by MAO-B?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Serotonin
C) Dopamine
D) Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: C – MAO-B prefers dopamine.
6. The therapeutic lag of SSRIs is best explained by:
A) Rapid receptor desensitization
,Page 2 of 103
NR 546 / NR546 Midterm Exam (Latest 2026
/ 2027) 2 Exams Versions (A & B) Questions
& Answers – Verified Answers – 100%
Guaranteed Pass ||Complete A+ Guide
1. A patient with schizophrenia shows poor response to typical
antipsychotics. Which receptor profile is most associated with
treatment-resistant symptoms?
A) High D2 occupancy only
B) Low 5-HT2A and high D2
C) High D2 and low 5-HT2A
D) Low D2 and high 5-HT1A
,Page 3 of 103
Correct Answer: A – High D2 occupancy alone fails to
address negative/cognitive symptoms; treatment resistance
often involves glutamate/NMDA dysfunction.
2. Which brain region’s hypofunction is most linked to negative
symptoms of schizophrenia?
A) Nucleus accumbens
B) Prefrontal cortex
C) VTA
D) Hypothalamus
Correct Answer: B – Hypofrontality correlates with negative
symptoms (avolition, anhedonia).
3. A patient develops EPS after haloperidol. Which pathway is
primarily affected?
A) Mesolimbic
B) Mesocortical
C) Nigrostriatal
D) Tuberoinfundibular
, Page 4 of 103
Correct Answer: C – Nigrostriatal D2 blockade causes EPS.
4. Scenario: A 45-year-old male on risperidone reports
galactorrhea. Which receptor action explains this?
A) 5-HT2A antagonism
B) D2 blockade in tuberoinfundibular pathway
C) H1 blockade
D) M1 antagonism
Correct Answer: B – D2 blockade in tuberoinfundibular →
increased prolactin.
5. Which neurotransmitter is primarily degraded by MAO-B?
A) Norepinephrine
B) Serotonin
C) Dopamine
D) Acetylcholine
Correct Answer: C – MAO-B prefers dopamine.
6. The therapeutic lag of SSRIs is best explained by:
A) Rapid receptor desensitization
