NR 602 / NR602 Midterm Exam Primary
Care Childbearing Childrearing Family
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Chamberlain
NR 602 Midterm | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: CHILDBEARING FAMILY (ANTEPARTUM, INTRAPARTUM, POSTPARTUM) – 45 Questions
Q1: A 28-year-old G1P0 at 10 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. Her BMI is 32. Which
prenatal lab should be offered at this visit based on current guidelines?
A. Glucose challenge test
B. Cell-free DNA screening [CORRECT]
C. Group B streptococcus culture
D. Quad screen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cell-free DNA screening (NIPT) can be performed as early as 10 weeks gestation and is
recommended for all pregnant women, particularly those with elevated BMI where first-trimester
nuchal translucency ultrasound may be technically limited.
Q2: A 34-year-old G2P1 at 28 weeks gestation reports increased vaginal discharge. On exam, the
discharge is thin, gray, and has a fishy odor. Vaginal pH is 5.0. Which is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Oral fluconazole 150 mg single dose
B. Oral metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days [CORRECT]
C. Clotrimazole vaginal cream × 7 days
D. Observation only
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: The presentation is consistent with bacterial vaginosis (thin gray discharge, fishy odor,
elevated pH >4.5); oral metronidazole is first-line treatment in pregnancy to reduce risk of preterm birth
and PROM.
Q3: [SATA] Which are danger signs in pregnancy that require immediate evaluation? Select all that
apply:
A. Severe headache with visual changes [CORRECT]
B. Vaginal bleeding [CORRECT]
C. Decreased fetal movement after 28 weeks [CORRECT]
D. Mild nausea in first trimester
E. Severe abdominal pain [CORRECT]
F. Regular uterine contractions before 37 weeks [CORRECT]
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E, F
Rationale: Danger signs in pregnancy include symptoms of preeclampsia (headache, visual changes),
bleeding, decreased fetal movement, severe pain, and preterm labor; mild first-trimester nausea is a
common physiological symptom.
Q4: A 25-year-old G1P0 at 18 weeks gestation has blood type O negative. Her partner's blood type is
unknown. Which intervention is indicated?
A. Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) now and at 28 weeks [CORRECT]
B. RhoGAM only if partner is Rh-positive
C. RhoGAM only postpartum
D. No RhoGAM needed in first pregnancy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rh-negative women receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks gestation routinely; if the partner's Rh
status is unknown, RhoGAM is administered prophylactically to prevent alloimmunization, with a repeat
dose postpartum if the infant is Rh-positive.
Q5: A 30-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 152/96 mmHg on two occasions 4
hours apart. Urine protein is negative. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension [CORRECT]
,C. Preeclampsia
D. Eclampsia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gestational hypertension is defined as BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks in a previously
normotensive patient without proteinuria; the absence of proteinuria and normal baseline BP
distinguishes this from preeclampsia and chronic hypertension.
Q6: [OB Complication Prioritization] A postpartum patient on day 2 presents with: temperature 38.8°C,
uterine tenderness, foul-smelling lochia, and tachycardia. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Encourage breastfeeding
B. Obtain blood cultures and start broad-spectrum antibiotics [CORRECT]
C. Administer acetaminophen only
D. Increase oral fluid intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation is consistent with endometritis (postpartum infection); blood cultures
should be obtained before antibiotics, and broad-spectrum coverage
(ampicillin/gentamicin/clindamycin) is essential to prevent sepsis.
Q7: A 22-year-old G1P0 at 24 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose challenge test of 155 mg/dL. What is
the next step in management?
A. Start insulin therapy
B. Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) [CORRECT]
C. Begin dietary modifications only
D. Repeat 1-hour test in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge ≥130-140 mg/dL (threshold varies by guideline) requires
confirmatory testing with a fasting 100g 3-hour OGTT; two or more elevated values diagnose gestational
diabetes mellitus.
Q8: [SATA] Which physiological changes are expected in normal pregnancy? Select all that apply:
A. Increased cardiac output (30-50%) [CORRECT]
B. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
, C. Increased plasma volume (40-50%) [CORRECT]
D. Decreased respiratory rate
E. Physiological anemia [CORRECT]
F. Increased progesterone causing smooth muscle relaxation [CORRECT]
Correct Answers: A, C, E, F
Rationale: Normal pregnancy includes increased cardiac output, plasma volume expansion,
hemodilution causing physiological anemia, and progesterone-mediated smooth muscle relaxation; GFR
increases and respiratory rate remains unchanged or slightly increases.
Q9: A 29-year-old G3P2 at 36 weeks gestation reports regular painful contractions every 5 minutes,
vaginal pressure, and back pain. Cervical exam shows 4 cm dilation, 80% effacement, station 0. Which is
the priority assessment?
A. Fetal heart rate and variability [CORRECT]
B. Maternal complete blood count
C. Group B strep culture
D. Maternal blood type and antibody screen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In active preterm labor (before 37 weeks), continuous fetal heart rate monitoring is the
priority to assess fetal well-being, identify decelerations, and guide management decisions including
tocolysis and corticosteroid administration.
Q10: A newborn at 1 minute has the following: heart rate 110, slow irregular respiratory effort, some
flexion of extremities, grimace with suctioning, blue body with pink extremities. What is the APGAR
score?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7 [CORRECT]
D. 8
Correct Answer: C
Care Childbearing Childrearing Family
ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | Chamberlain
NR 602 Midterm | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: CHILDBEARING FAMILY (ANTEPARTUM, INTRAPARTUM, POSTPARTUM) – 45 Questions
Q1: A 28-year-old G1P0 at 10 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. Her BMI is 32. Which
prenatal lab should be offered at this visit based on current guidelines?
A. Glucose challenge test
B. Cell-free DNA screening [CORRECT]
C. Group B streptococcus culture
D. Quad screen
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Cell-free DNA screening (NIPT) can be performed as early as 10 weeks gestation and is
recommended for all pregnant women, particularly those with elevated BMI where first-trimester
nuchal translucency ultrasound may be technically limited.
Q2: A 34-year-old G2P1 at 28 weeks gestation reports increased vaginal discharge. On exam, the
discharge is thin, gray, and has a fishy odor. Vaginal pH is 5.0. Which is the most appropriate treatment?
A. Oral fluconazole 150 mg single dose
B. Oral metronidazole 500 mg BID × 7 days [CORRECT]
C. Clotrimazole vaginal cream × 7 days
D. Observation only
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: The presentation is consistent with bacterial vaginosis (thin gray discharge, fishy odor,
elevated pH >4.5); oral metronidazole is first-line treatment in pregnancy to reduce risk of preterm birth
and PROM.
Q3: [SATA] Which are danger signs in pregnancy that require immediate evaluation? Select all that
apply:
A. Severe headache with visual changes [CORRECT]
B. Vaginal bleeding [CORRECT]
C. Decreased fetal movement after 28 weeks [CORRECT]
D. Mild nausea in first trimester
E. Severe abdominal pain [CORRECT]
F. Regular uterine contractions before 37 weeks [CORRECT]
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E, F
Rationale: Danger signs in pregnancy include symptoms of preeclampsia (headache, visual changes),
bleeding, decreased fetal movement, severe pain, and preterm labor; mild first-trimester nausea is a
common physiological symptom.
Q4: A 25-year-old G1P0 at 18 weeks gestation has blood type O negative. Her partner's blood type is
unknown. Which intervention is indicated?
A. Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) now and at 28 weeks [CORRECT]
B. RhoGAM only if partner is Rh-positive
C. RhoGAM only postpartum
D. No RhoGAM needed in first pregnancy
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rh-negative women receive RhoGAM at 28 weeks gestation routinely; if the partner's Rh
status is unknown, RhoGAM is administered prophylactically to prevent alloimmunization, with a repeat
dose postpartum if the infant is Rh-positive.
Q5: A 30-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 152/96 mmHg on two occasions 4
hours apart. Urine protein is negative. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Chronic hypertension
B. Gestational hypertension [CORRECT]
,C. Preeclampsia
D. Eclampsia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Gestational hypertension is defined as BP ≥140/90 after 20 weeks in a previously
normotensive patient without proteinuria; the absence of proteinuria and normal baseline BP
distinguishes this from preeclampsia and chronic hypertension.
Q6: [OB Complication Prioritization] A postpartum patient on day 2 presents with: temperature 38.8°C,
uterine tenderness, foul-smelling lochia, and tachycardia. Which is the priority nursing action?
A. Encourage breastfeeding
B. Obtain blood cultures and start broad-spectrum antibiotics [CORRECT]
C. Administer acetaminophen only
D. Increase oral fluid intake
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation is consistent with endometritis (postpartum infection); blood cultures
should be obtained before antibiotics, and broad-spectrum coverage
(ampicillin/gentamicin/clindamycin) is essential to prevent sepsis.
Q7: A 22-year-old G1P0 at 24 weeks gestation has a 1-hour glucose challenge test of 155 mg/dL. What is
the next step in management?
A. Start insulin therapy
B. Perform a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) [CORRECT]
C. Begin dietary modifications only
D. Repeat 1-hour test in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 1-hour glucose challenge ≥130-140 mg/dL (threshold varies by guideline) requires
confirmatory testing with a fasting 100g 3-hour OGTT; two or more elevated values diagnose gestational
diabetes mellitus.
Q8: [SATA] Which physiological changes are expected in normal pregnancy? Select all that apply:
A. Increased cardiac output (30-50%) [CORRECT]
B. Decreased glomerular filtration rate
, C. Increased plasma volume (40-50%) [CORRECT]
D. Decreased respiratory rate
E. Physiological anemia [CORRECT]
F. Increased progesterone causing smooth muscle relaxation [CORRECT]
Correct Answers: A, C, E, F
Rationale: Normal pregnancy includes increased cardiac output, plasma volume expansion,
hemodilution causing physiological anemia, and progesterone-mediated smooth muscle relaxation; GFR
increases and respiratory rate remains unchanged or slightly increases.
Q9: A 29-year-old G3P2 at 36 weeks gestation reports regular painful contractions every 5 minutes,
vaginal pressure, and back pain. Cervical exam shows 4 cm dilation, 80% effacement, station 0. Which is
the priority assessment?
A. Fetal heart rate and variability [CORRECT]
B. Maternal complete blood count
C. Group B strep culture
D. Maternal blood type and antibody screen
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In active preterm labor (before 37 weeks), continuous fetal heart rate monitoring is the
priority to assess fetal well-being, identify decelerations, and guide management decisions including
tocolysis and corticosteroid administration.
Q10: A newborn at 1 minute has the following: heart rate 110, slow irregular respiratory effort, some
flexion of extremities, grimace with suctioning, blue body with pink extremities. What is the APGAR
score?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7 [CORRECT]
D. 8
Correct Answer: C
