Mastery Guide: 200 Practice Questions with
Answers & Rationales Comprehensive Review for the
Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam
(2026)
Introduction
The Pharmacy Technician Certification Exam (PTCE) is a critical milestone for
anyone pursuing a career as a Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT). Developed
by the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB), this computer-based
exam assesses your knowledge and skills across nine major domains, including
pharmacology, pharmacy law and ethics, medication safety, sterile and non-sterile
compounding, inventory management, billing and reimbursement, and patient
care.
1. A prescription reads “Amoxicillin 400 mg/5 mL, take 10 mL PO BID.” How many
mg does the patient receive per dose?
A) 400 mg
B) 800 mg
C) 1,200 mg
D) 200 mg
,*Rationale: 400 mg per 5 mL, so 10 mL = 400 × 2 = 800 mg per dose.*
2. Which DEA form is used to order Schedule II controlled substances?
A) DEA Form 41
B) DEA Form 222
C) DEA Form 106
D) DEA Form 224
Rationale: DEA Form 222 is the official order form for Schedule II drugs.
3. A drug has a half-life of 4 hours. How much of a 1,000 mg dose remains after 12
hours?
A) 250 mg
B) 500 mg
C) 125 mg
D) 62.5 mg
*Rationale: After 12h = 3 half-lives. 1000→500→250→125 mg.*
4. Which of the following is an example of a macrolide antibiotic?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Doxycycline
C) Azithromycin
D) Amoxicillin
Rationale: Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and erythromycin are macrolides.
5. What is the generic name for Tylenol?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Naproxen
C) Acetaminophen
D) Aspirin
Rationale: Tylenol’s generic is acetaminophen (paracetamol).
6. A patient presents a prescription for “Methylphenidate 20 mg BID.” This drug is
classified as Schedule:
A) II
,B) III
C) IV D) V
Rationale: Methylphenidate (Ritalin, Concerta) is a Schedule II CNS stimulant.
7. Which auxiliary label should be applied to a dispensed bottle of Metronidazole?
A) Take with food
B) Avoid alcohol
C) Refrigerate
D) Shake well
Rationale: Metronidazole + alcohol can cause a disulfiram-like reaction.
8. Technician A says that brand-name drugs cost more than generics. Technician
B says generics must have the same active ingredient and strength as brand.
Who is correct?
A) A only
B) B only
C) Both A and B
D) Neither
Rationale: Both statements are true – generics are cheaper but bioequivalent.
9. What is the beyond-use date (BUD) for a non-sterile compounded
capsule stored at room temperature? A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 6 months
D) 1 year
*Rationale: USP <795> states ≤6 months for non-sterile (unless stability data
shows longer).*
10. Which law required a prescription for “legend drugs” and mandated labeling
“Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without a prescription”?
A) Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
B) Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951
C) Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
D) Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990
, Rationale: Durham-Humphrey separated Rx from OTC.
11. A patient’s insurance rejects a claim with “Refill too soon.” What is the most
likely next step?
A) Change the days’ supply
B) Bill a different insurance
C) Check the last fill date and calculate if enough drug remains
D) Override with a DAW code
Rationale: “Refill too soon” means the plan expects remaining medication.
12. Which of the following medications requires a MedGuide automatically when
dispensed?
A) Lisinopril
B) Metformin
C) Alprazolam D) Atorvastatin
Rationale: Benzodiazepines like alprazolam require a Medication Guide under FDA
REMS.
13. What is the correct way to write “three times a day” in a prescription?
A) BID
B) TID
C) QID
D) Q4H
Rationale: TID = ter in die (three times daily).
14. A vial reads “Warfarin 5 mg.” The pharmacy has only 2 mg tablets. How many
tablets for a 5 mg dose?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 2.5
D) 5
*Rationale: 5 ÷ 2 = 2.5 tablets (though warfarin is often dispensed as exact
strength; this is a math exercise).*
15. Which of the following is a beta-blocker?